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Possumisagun
21 Jul 2003, 20:59
I was watching T2 the other night and it got me thinking...

If the guy who built the machines used the technology he found in the old arm and chip from the original terminator that was sent back to kill Sarah Connor, then how was that original machine ever built, because before it that technology would not have been available?

Does anyone have an explanation?

Pantsless
22 Jul 2003, 08:52
I don't think it's supposed to make sense..it's Hollywood! I'm sure they sat there with the screenplay for T2 and there was a little bloke down the back saying exactly what you said.

I believe he was fired.

It's like The Core, the physics defying movie!

Pantsless
22 Jul 2003, 08:59
I don't think it's supposed to make sense..it's Hollywood! I'm sure they sat there with the screenplay for T2 and there was a little bloke down the back saying exactly what you said.

I believe he was fired.

It's like The Core, the physics defying movie!

Mr. Snrub
22 Jul 2003, 12:29
I think you can resolve it in the same way as the paradox

"If John Conner stops Judgement Day, doesn't he cease to exist because there's now no reason for his father to travel back to protect Sarah Conner? But if he doesn't exist then he can't stop Judgement Day..."

T3 says that destroying the arm and chip in T2 only delayed judgement day rather than preventing it. So the Terminators still get invented, the war still happens, and John still gets born; it just gets pushed back a bit. And these paradoxes are resolved because the future is set anyway...

Mr Eagle
22 Jul 2003, 12:51
Well theoretically the hardware developed without the help of the arm and the chip were the arm and the chip themselves. So all they would have done is fast-forwarded the development of the technology (so before T1, Judgement Day may have been much later than 1996)