Can one of our umpire members explain their thought processes/interpretations of a player who handballs (correctly) the ball towards the ground or out in front of him just prior to being tackled who is then subsequently tackled without the ball but is never awarded the free kick.
I realize it is deliberate ploy to draw a free and perhaps this is why it is not paid (a la Bartlett in the 70's) but it seems within the rules and he should get a free for holding the man.
I realize it is deliberate ploy to draw a free and perhaps this is why it is not paid (a la Bartlett in the 70's) but it seems within the rules and he should get a free for holding the man.