Void bet

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Its the same with first over runs betting on some matches. For the bet to stand at least one run must be scored.

Why they do it I don’t know. Maybe it’s connected to spot fixing
 

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Its the same with first over runs betting on some matches. For the bet to stand at least one run must be scored.

Why they do it I don’t know. Maybe it’s connected to spot fixing

Ludicrous rule but can only concur with IKTD its a spot fixing thing
 
I would be super surprised if there’s much spot fixing going on with Australian books on these prop markets. A couple of decent bets/wins and they will restrict you anyway. This is just an excuse to catch out unsuspecting punters and people that arb/middle props.
 
I would be super surprised if there’s much spot fixing going on with Australian books on these prop markets. A couple of decent bets/wins and they will restrict you anyway. This is just an excuse to catch out unsuspecting punters and people that arb/middle props.
No, I doubt it has anything to do with that.

How can this not be relating to spot fixing?
 
let's be honest it's much harder to get out for exactly 0 without being obvious rather then less than 22.5 for sure?

seems like a spot fixing for another market that carried over.

Do other bookies have the same clause? On phone and cbf checking.

Given it is for Australia only maybe it is part of being an approved betting provider of CA.

CA tell them what they can and can't bet on for props. Bet365 got in trouble for that when they first started here.

Either someone at CA thinks it reduces the chance of spot fixing by not allowing you to bet on a wicket falling on no runs or someone at WA tab have interpreted CA requirements like that.

It would be easier to manipulate getting out on 0 than getting out on 11 for example in an exact amount of runs market but makes sfa difference on an under 22.5 market.
 
It would be easier to manipulate getting out on 0 than getting out on 11 for example in an exact amount of runs market but makes sfa difference on an under 22.5 market.
I agree with you. If they wanted to fix a market for fall of first wicket, it sounds illogical to go out on zero. Why go out on zero when you can go out on 20? It's much better to be 1/20 than 1/0.
 
What I don’t understand then, is why they don’t void the unders for player runs scored whenever they are out for a duck as well?
This discrepancy of rules between bookmakers, hidden deep in their terms and conditions has got to stop. We can’t even get a universal settlement rule for something as common as tennis retirements ffs
 

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