I find that very difficult to believe. Can anyone else confirm this? Also, is it a free kick? Or just a free?
I was wrong.
- If a Free Kick is still counted even when advantage is paid
- If a Free Kick is still counted even when it's then reversed
In both cases a Free Kick had already been paid to arrive at that situation, you can't have an Advantage in the first place unless there is a Free Kick paid before and even though in a situation when a Free Kick is reversed we use the language Reversed, in reality it's just a second kick paid for another infringment.
Life lesson - don't believe channel 9.



