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Originally posted by Lestat
Well, is he wrong?? The point he made as that Israel was a prophet of God (Jacob), and that the nation of Israel was named after a prophet. Judah was also named after Jacobs son, Judah. I see nothing wrong with his comment whatsoever.

The point I believe he was trying to make is that there was no justification for naming the country Israel. That calling the land “Israel” is pointless. It clearly is not. That’s the point I was making. It’s a point you appear to have missed.

Originally posted by Lestat
Not difficult to conclude? And how did you come to that conclusion. How many semetic's have blue eyes for one? How many semetic's are central European in appearance? Genetic studies have found that many Ashkenazic jews have no genetic trace to the semetic jews. Cause the Israeli govt put a stop to these findings being made public (on the grounds that it was anti-semetic, which is just rubbish), then you'd have no basis whatsoever for your argument, and I suspect you'd have a different opinion on the matter.
The Shephardic jews (majority of them remained in Israel, hence preserving there roots) I agree are semetic, however unfortunately they are also treated second rate in Israel, second to the Ashkenazic jews. Then we look at the Ethiopian Jews, treated only marginally better then the arabs. It seems in Israel your jewishness is judged on the color of your skin.

Genetic studies? Which genetic studies would these be? For example a recent study in 2000 examined the Y chromosomes of 119 Ashkenazi and Sephardic Jews and 143 Israeli and Palestinian Arabs. Their conclusion? . That the Y chromosomes of many of the men had key segments of DNA that were so similar that they revealed that most of the men must have had common ancestors within the past several thousand years. They found that many of the Jewish subjects were descended from ancestors who they believe originated in the Middle East. In another recent study of 1371 men from around the world, geneticist Michael Hammer of the University of Arizona found that the Y chromosome in Middle Eastern Arabs was almost indistinguishable from that of Jews.

Kevin Alan Brooks a geneticist, has also concluded that certain Jewish features of the Y Chromosome (that he calls the Cohen Modal Haplotype), is found also amongst Kurds, Armenians, Anatolian Turks, and Arabs. He also states that Jewish genetic diseases are also found in Middle Eastern populations. He makes the point also that Jewish mitochondrial DNA (which is inherited only through the female) resembles certain European peoples.
The latest conclusion from the geneticists is that some Jews look like their neighbors because of maternal non-Israelite ancestry, whereas the paternal roots of most Jewish communities generally stem from ancient Israel.

Originally posted by Lestat

So what...so did Palestine. So did Prussia. whats your point? Ah_19's point is that just because a nation existed hundreds of years ago, it is no claim for the land today. So whether it existed or not....who cares!

My point was that you asked for a map that shows Israel existing before 1948. I see one was provided.

Originally posted by Lestat
So you agree palestine also existed. Finally we agree on something :)

Of course. Where did I ever say that Palestine did not exist?

Originally posted by Lestat

Incorrect.

The Mullah Omar Ibn Khattab sent emissaries to Jerusalem over a four month period to negotiate the surrender of Jerusalem. There was no seige, no historical evidence of a seige. Just a lie fabricated to discredit the Islamic religon, one of many.

A quote from a reference book I have by historian Antony Bridge…

After the victory of Ajnadin the Muslim forces spread in all directions in Jordan and Palestine. The towns of Sabtah, Gaza, Nablus, Bait-Jibrin and many other towns were captured one after the other. That cleared the way to Jerusalem. The city of Jerusalem sacred to the Jews and the Christians was strongly fortified. It was protected on every side naturally by deep valleys and steep ascents. Further, military engines were mounted on the walls which were intended for playing havoc with the advancing invader. It was the winter season, and the severity of the winter added to the difficulties of the besieging Muslim force. The siege dragged on and the Byzantines offered very stiff resistance.
Amr bin al-As the Muslim Commander in the southern sector wrote to Abu Ubaida for reinforcement. By this time, northern Syria had fallen to the Muslims and Aba Ubaida was able to spare many contingents which rushed to the aid of the Muslims fighting in the southern sector. When the citizens of Jerusalem came to know that the besieging Muslim forces has been considerably strengthened they lost heart. Finding further resistance futile, the Patriarch of Jerusalem sued for peace. He said that it was written in their holy books that the city would surrender to the man who was the best among the Muslims. He accordingly desired that the Caliph Umar (ra) should come to Jerusalem personally to receive the surrender of the city.”


Originally posted by Lestat

The fall of Jerusalem was a forgone conclusion, and Omar gave the residence of Jerusalem an opportunity to avoid bloodshet, which eventually they accepted. When the Islamic forces marched on Jerusalem, they found the city gates opened, and welcomed the muslims as liberators from the Roman oppression.

Er, no they didn't. Sophronius, the Patriarch of Jerusalem and the many Christians living in Jerusalem did NOT welcome the Muslims as liberators. The negotiated a peace, yes. The Muslims eventually entered Jerusalem peacefully..yes. However that is not saying that there was no siege and neither is it saying that the inhabitants of Jerusalem "welcomed" them as liberators.


Originally posted by Lestat

Do you deny that life for the residents of Jerusalem improved dramatically compared to that under the Byzantium empire?


No I don’t deny it, but so what? Again what are you trying to justify?

Improved for who? The Christians or the Jews?

Originally posted by Lestat

If your looking for evidence in Christian/Jewish historical references then ofcourse your not going to find it. But why dont you look at the evidence on the ground.

You implied by your previous statement that the Muslims took Jerusalem bloodlessly and then “at the time” the population of Jerusalem converted to Islam. You stated and I quote that……” However you can't deny that the majority of the inhabitants of Jerusalem at the time did convert to Islam. History shows us that.

Obviously history doesn’t show us that at all.

And what evidence "on the ground" are we talking about?

Originally posted by Lestat

What, do you think the muslims mass immigrated to Jerusalem once Mullah Omar Ibn Khatab had control of jerusalem. Was there a huge influx of people, some sort of Islamic exodus to Jerusalem?

You tell me. You’re the one that claimed that and I’ll quote you again…. However you can't deny that the majority of the inhabitants of Jerusalem at the time did convert to Islam. History shows us that.

Originally posted by Lestat

In 1929 a census of Jerusalem found that East Jerusalem was majority muslim, and west was divided by Jewish and Christian/Latin quater. This was a British study. During the crusades (200-300 years after capture of Jerusalem), Majority of Jerusalem was muslim, with a minority Jewish/Christian population. So how do you explain that??

1929? You kidding me aren’t you? What’s a census in 1929 got to with what went on “at the time” in AD 638. During the Crusades which captured Jerusalem in 1099 (which is a full 461 years after the fall of Jerusalem) there was a majority Muslim population, but also a sizeable quantity of Jews.

I’m not surprised that after 461 years of Muslim rule that the majority of inhabitants in Jerusalem in 1099 were Muslim. However that is a LONG way from implying that the inhabitants of jerusalem saw the light in 638 and converted enmass to Islam…….as you implied by your statement.

Originally posted by Lestat

Incorrect. The terms of peace imposed on the Christians were identical to those on the Jews. They are both considered 'Children of the Book', and since Mullah Omar Ibn Khattab strictly adhered to the teachings of the Prophet, both were treated equally. The difference is that the Christians adhered to the terms, however the Jews revolted in May 637AD (they couldn't accept rule from the arabs, there cousins who they considered inferior), and were punished accordingly.

What’s incorrect about it? I stated……”the terms of peace imposed on the Christians living in Jerusalem by Caliph Omar were moderate and there was no 'forced' conversions of Christians. That’s correct isn’t it? “ Didn’t a chronicler of the time state….”This peace….guarantees them security for their lives, property, churches, and the crucifixes belonging to those who display and honour them…..There shall be no compulsion in matters of faith.”

“Certainly if you are referring to the Jews, that is not correct.” This statement was made in reply to your claim,,,,” However you can't deny that the majority of the inhabitants of Jerusalem at the time did convert to Islam. History shows us that.” I stated that wasn’t correct. You’ve backed me up by saying the Jews revolted later that year and were punished accordingly. Sounds like they didn't convert to Islam "at the time."

So in fact my statement was correct.

Originally posted by Lestat

My point is that western history has an agenda, and you can't take it all to be fact. And the same goes with Arab/eastern history. So the truth you'll find is somewhere in the middle.

Exactly. So one tries to read both and come to a considered opinion. Note that I have quoted Eastern historians to you. You’ve quoted and referred to very few Western historians (or very few historians at all actually)

As you say!

Originally posted by Lestat

I assure you that there more experience and learned historians then you out there that will say the exact same thing about your material. I don't mean this as an attack by the way, just a fact of life.

Maybe, but there are some “facts”, which are generally agreed on by most historians and which refute some of ah_19’s claims.

Example:
”palestinians been there longer”.

No they haven’t.

Originally posted by Lestat

No one denied the existence of Jerusalem. But you claim that this is proof of the existence of Israel (which I don't deny by the way). All the above paragraph confirms is the existence of Jerusalem.

Correct. But my comment here needs to be read in conjunction with my other comments.

Originally posted by Lestat
I repeat that during the reign of Ramses II there was no Israel,

This school of thought is being increasingly challenged.

Originally posted by Lestat
and no evidence during on the buildings of Ramses II, or writing of Israel.

Not Rameses II, but certainly of his son Merenptah. The Ashkelon Wall is throught now to have been by Merenptah, but glorifying the exploits of his father Rameses. Israel is definitely mentioned.

Originally posted by Lestat
Jerusalem yes, Israel no. Jerusalem existed long before Israel did.

Correct.

Originally posted by Lestat
According the Biblical texts (and the Quran) Jerusalem was first settled by Abraham, and the present day site of the dome of the rock/wailing wall is the site where Abraham was going to slay his son (Isaac or Ismael), but slayed the goat instead.


Well, if it says so in the Biblical texts, it MUST be true. In fact archaeologists believe Jerusalem was a settlement long before the reputed time of Abraham. Even according to the Biblical texts, how could Abraham have founded Jerusalem when in Genesis 14:18, it was already recognised as a city of religious dispute ruled by Melchizedek, its high priest. Archaeoligst beleive Jerusalem has been the site of a settlement since about 4,000 BC, long before the accepted period for Abraham.

Originally posted by Lestat
So there is no reference to Israel on the Northern pylon whatsoever. You've just included that for the sake of your argument.

As I said my comment here needs to be read in conjunction with my other comments... and not in isolation. I've explained why I mentioned Jerusalem on the northern pylon.

Originally posted by Lestat

So incorret its not funny. Which egyptogyst are you talking about.

David M. Rohl and Professor Robert Steven Bianchi.

Originally posted by Lestat
Have a look at your dates. Ramses II was pharoah long before the house of David, and way before the first sacking of the Temple of Jerusalem.

Which dates are these? Are these based on Edwin Thiele’s chronology? As I have stated before Egyptian dates and their relation to Biblical events are constantly being re-assessed.

Originally posted by Lestat
Shoshenk I was not in fact Egyptian. He was a Pharoah of a Nubian Dynasty which conquered Egypt.

Shoshenk was Libyan actually, not Nubian.

Originally posted by Lestat
I can't remember exact dates but Shoshenk I came long after Ramses II, when egypt was well into his demise. Also after the house of Solomon and David. However Ramses II as i said earlier, was around long before David.

Shoshenk reigned from 945-924. He wasn’t after the House of Solomon and David. After all you are arguing he went to war against Rehoboam, who was the son of Solomon.

Originally posted by Lestat
He in fact did record the sacking of Jerusalem, and the tale is told in Karnak.

The city of Jerusalem is NOT, I repeat NOT, listed on the list of subjugated cities on the Shoshenk’s campaign city list. I can give you a complete list of the cities that are if you like. Most have been identified and only ONE of the 39 towns identified has been located in the kingdom of Judah. That city was Aijalon. The rest are in Israel, who according to the Bible (King Jeroboam) was an ally of the Egyptian king.

Rehoboam is known to have had 14 fortified cities. Only ONE is mentioned by Shoshenk, that being Aijalon. Now if “Shishak” went up against the Kingdom of Judah, as reported in the Bible, why isn’t Jerusalem mentioned on Shoshenk’s reliefs. Surely after the reign of Solomon and David it would have been a very significant city. Rohl and Bianchi contend that Shoshenq and Shishak are in fact not the same person and that in fact Shoshenk never went to Jerusalem. They identify “Shishak” with Rameses II for reasons I have already explained.

Israel IS mentioned on the Israel Stele of Merenptah, as well as on the Ashkelon Wall of Merenptah, the son of Rameses II as well as Jerusalem at Karnak as previously explained.

Originally posted by Lestat

You accuse ah_19 of slanting the facts to his own needs, yet you do exactly the same!

Well the Egyptians called Canaan, “Pa-Canaan. ” The use of the word Israel certainly implies that the Israelites were in possession of at least parts of the land of Canaan at the time of Rameses the Great. It is a possibility that the Kingdom of Israel (as a state) did exist at the time of Rameses II.

Certainly to return to my original point, there’s no doubt that Israel did exist and not just as the name of a prophet of god.

Originally posted by Lestat

It doesn't mention an Israeli state whatsoever. It mentions a land, not a state. Not once is the word state mentioned, correct? That makes a big difference. As mentioned earlier Israel was a prophet (Jacob) and lived in Canaan(present day Israel). Check the dates, there was no evidence of a State of Israel, no kingdom. Land of Israel yes (land where Israel (Jacob) lived).

Where’s your evidence that there was no State of Israel in ancient times? Are you suggesting that the United Monarchy of Israel under David and Solomon did not exist and never existed? Are you suggesting that the Israelite kings did not exist, that Kings such as Ahab, Josiah and Zedekiah did not exist or were ever kings over a Kingdom of Israel. The existence of the Kingdom of Israel is attested to in many places outside the Bible (in other places than Egypt) and I’d be very happy to give you a complete list of this.

However I’d like at least just one piece of evidence from you, that “there is no evidence of a State of Israel, no kingdom.”

Originally posted by Lestat

Not necessarily. As i mentioned the Egyptian kingdom was in a state of decline at the time. There's a scroll found in the temple of Shoshenk which mentions that there were '100 pharoahs in 100 days', untill Shoshenk (of nubian descent) captured Thebes and started his own dynasty. They had there own problems, and Shoshenk was merely a 'bolder in the stream'. Arts and crafts were only a mere shadow of what they once were.

Shoshenk was of Libyan descent, not Nubian. I don’t follow your point that Jerusalem wouldn’t have been mentioned because the Egyptian kingdom was in a state of decline. Geez, he mentioned 39 other cities. Why not Jerusalem? Why only 1 of the 14 known fortified cities of Rehoboam.

Originally posted by Lestat

I've read it in a number of sources.

Could you quote the sources than Kenneth Kitchen was a Jew? It’s news to me.

Originally posted by Lestat

A part of the zionist plot to conquer palestine (from the 18th century this has been going on, since Theodore Hertzl (a liberal jew at best) gave birth to the idea) was to re-write history, to give themselves a more relevant claim. It seems to have worked.

Of course, how convenient to label any historian who may not give the Arab version of events to be labelled a part of Zionist plot. I suppose I’m part of a Zionist plot as well, because I disagree with you.

Originally posted by Lestat

Yes, and British historians, Australians historians, etc, etc.
My point exactly, so don't take your history to be fact! History, can and has been re-written. Try reading between the lies!

And what are the lies? How do you decide what is a “lie” and what is not. Truth, I suppose is your version of events.

Originally posted by Lestat

Don't you mean Joseph.

No. I mean Moses. Joseph in fact has been identified by some Egyptologists as possibly being Yuya, a prominent official at the time of Amenhotep III, the father of Akhenaten.

Originally posted by Lestat

Moses existing during the times of Akhenaten wouldnt not make sense. As you'd probably know, Akhenaten was famous for scrapping the numerous gods of Egypt (in particular Amun and Ra) and imposing the one god (Aton, the disk of the sun). He was the only pharoah to believe in one god. If Moses existed during his time then wouldn't Akhenaten been alot more friendly towards Moses, since his teachings would have been very close to what Akhenaton believed.

Perhaps Akhenaten WAS Moses.

Originally posted by Lestat

If you meant that Akhenaten was pharoah when Moses was born, then once again this wouldn't make sense, since it would mean that Tutankamum was pharoah when Moses returned to Egypt from exile, which is ludicrous.

Why ludicrous? Why not Horemheb or Ay?

Originally posted by Lestat

Horemheb was pharoah 20 or so years after the death of Akhenaton, after Tutankamun (also was TutankAton), and Ay, though many believe he was the true power behind these two.

Horemheb succeeded Ay (who apparently reigned for four years and was the son of Yuya). Ay succeeded Tutankamen who reigned for 9 years. So there was a 13 year period between the death (disappearance, his mummy has never been found) of Akhenaten and the accession of Horemheb.

Originally posted by Lestat

I've heard that theories that Akhenaton was Pharoah during the existence of Joseph. To me that would make much more sense, perhaps Joseph inspired Akhenaton to the belief of the one god, and during this time Joseph's brothers and his fathers immigrated to Egypt. Hence Canaan from that time on would have been known as the land of 'Israel', the land from which Israel (Jacob) came from, and the brothers multiplied, generation after generation to the time of Ramses II, Merenptah and the Exodus. But thats just my thoery, taken from sources that I've read.

I suggest then you read Ahmed Osman’s “Stranger in the Valley of the Kings”, and “Moses: Pharoah of Egypt”.


Originally posted by Lestat
and vice versa.

And who have you mentioned again?

Originally posted by Lestat

Many still believe that they were. I haven't read those works yet...but I will. Thanks for the references. I still believe that if you look, the dates don't match. I haven't got the dates here cause i'm at work, but will have a look tonight.

I understand perfectly the traditional way of calculating dates in Egyptian chronology. All I’m saying is that it coming under increasing questioning and re-assessment.
 
The point I believe he was trying to make is that there was no justification for naming the country Israel. That calling the land “Israel” is pointless. It clearly is not. That’s the point I was making. It’s a point you appear to have missed.

This was his post on the topic.

Israel (s) was a prophet of god, calling the land of zionism israel would be as pointless as calling australia jesus or bob or cook
.

If you notice, he used the term 'Zionist Israel', that would mean the Israel of today. All these points you bring up refer to the Israel of ancient times. And unless you believe that the state/kingdom of Israel has existed from then till now, then your points are totally irrelevant, since you are talking about a kingdom that ceased to exist 2000 years ago.

So yeah, where do you think the Justification of calling the Land Israel today comes from...ancient history??
Do you also believe that the European Union should be renamed 'the roman empire'?

My point was that you asked for a map that shows Israel existing before 1948. I see one was provided.

Are you serious. Is that the best you can do. All I see is a map (looking suspiciously like the one from the BBC site, or Israeli govt website) of Israel in the time of David and Solomon. I never denied the state of Israel existed, but I do deny that it has existed for 2000 years, which has been claimed in this thread by Frodo....as a fact.
Show me a map of Israel 200, 500, 1000 years ago. You can't.

Er, no they didn't. Sophronius, the Patriarch of Jerusalem and the many Christians living in Jerusalem did NOT welcome the Muslims as liberators. The negotiated a peace, yes. The Muslims eventually entered Jerusalem peacefully..yes. However that is not saying that there was no siege and neither is it saying that the inhabitants of Jerusalem "welcomed" them as liberators.

And this is your evidence that Jerusalem did not welcome the muslims as liberators. Would you expect the Patriarch of Jerusalem (a representative of the Byzantium Church) to welcome the Muslims as liberators.

You then say that the muslims eventually entered Jerusalem peacefully....after a seige. Isn't that a slight contradiction. Which was it?

Improved for who? The Christians or the Jews?

The Christians. As i stated earlier, the jews agreed to the terms of peace, then later revolted. Not the first time in history, nor the last that they've done this.

These jews were punished, i don't deny that. however they were allowed to practice there religon in peace...which was not the case under Christianity. So yes, eventually life also improved for the Jews.

You implied by your previous statement that the Muslims took Jerusalem bloodlessly and then “at the time” the population of Jerusalem converted to Islam. You stated and I quote that……” However you can't deny that the majority of the inhabitants of Jerusalem at the time did convert to Islam. History shows us that.

During the Crusades which captured Jerusalem in 1099 (which is a full 461 years after the fall of Jerusalem) there was a majority Muslim population, but also a sizeable quantity of Jews.

So how do you explain that 461 years after the fall of jerusalem the majority of jerusalem had become muslim, unless some sort of mass conversion had occurred. Of course I don't mean immediately, thats just silly, but soon after yes. Why doesn't it surprise you?? Do you believe they were forced to convert, or did muslims mass immigrate to Jerusalem. Why don't you offer an alternative on how the majority of the residents of Jerusalem became muslim 400 years after. Mind you, obviously this transformation had occurred well before the crusades, don't you agree?
 

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1929? You kidding me aren’t you? What’s a census in 1929 got to with what went on “at the time” in AD 638.

the same relevance as the creation of the modern state of Israel has got to do with what went on 'at the time' in AD 638.

The same relevance as naming the Zionist state of 'Israel' has got to do with what went on 2000 years ago.

“Certainly if you are referring to the Jews, that is not correct.” This statement was made in reply to your claim,,,,” However you can't deny that the majority of the inhabitants of Jerusalem at the time did convert to Islam. History shows us that.” I stated that wasn’t correct. You’ve backed me up by saying the Jews revolted later that year and were punished accordingly. Sounds like they didn't convert to Islam "at the time."

Sorry, I think i misunderstood.

You said
In any case, the terms of peace imposed on the Christians living in Jerusalem by Caliph Omar in 637 were moderate and there was no 'forced' conversions of Christians. Certainly if you are referring to the Jews, that is not correct.

I understood that to mean that you believed there was forced conversions of Jews, and that Jews were somehow persucuted for being jews. I was just stating that the terms of peace were the same for the jews as they were for the Christians. The jews were punished for revolting against terms which they had agreed too.
 
Originally posted by Lestat
the same relevance as the creation of the modern state of Israel has got to do with what went on 'at the time' in AD 638.


Incorrect.

The modern state of Israel was created as an answer to the Jewish "question".

One answer was to exterminate them - it was tried first.

The other answer was to establish a sovereign Jewish Nation.

What when on in AD 638 has great relevance when asking WHERE to establish a Jewish nation - hence Zionism.

The historical fact of Zionist claims to Palestine, although a fascinating subject, actually has nothing to do with why Israel was created.
 
Exactly. So one tries to read both and come to a considered opinion. Note that I have quoted Eastern historians to you. You’ve quoted and referred to very few Western historians (or very few historians at all actually)

Quoted Eastern Historians?? Where? You haven't Quoted one eastern historian...not one.

And regarding my lack of references. I'm sorry but I'm posting while im at work, so I don't have access to all my books in front of me. Therefore most that i'm posting I admit is of the top of my head, therefore I might be slightly wrong with some names, and dates. And rushing as well, since i do have work to do as well.

However I will provide you with the references that you have asked for.

Maybe, but there are some “facts”, which are generally agreed on by most historians and which refute some of ah_19’s claims.

Example:
”palestinians been there longer”.

Seems thats the only claim which you refute, since you've used it a few times know as an example of Ah_19 'lies'?
I agree that this claim is incorrect, however plenty of the others are not...namely the quotes made my historical figures. They are correct and spot on.

So can I conclude that you don't refute his other claims.

Correct. But my comment here needs to be read in conjunction with my other comments.

You used the mentioning of Jerusalem by Ramses II as evidence that the state of Israel existed. All i did was refute your claim that Jerusalem being mentioned on the Northern Pylon is evidence that the State of Israel did exist during the time of Ramses. The fact that we agree that Jerusalem existed long before Israel, makes this your statement irrelevant.
Once again...I do not deny the existence of the Kingdom of Israel...I do however deny that this kingdom existed during the time of Ramses II, and I strongly deny that this kingdom or state has existed for 2000 years.

Not Rameses II, but certainly of his son Merenptah. The Ashkelon Wall is throught now to have been by Merenptah, but glorifying the exploits of his father Rameses. Israel is definitely mentioned.

Like I said, I don't deny that Israel was mentioned on the Ashelon wall. I have seen it and I agree with you. However, the state of Israel or the kingdom of Israel was not mentioned. As I stated earlier, when Joseph came to Egypt, he later bought his brothers and fathers. From then on, the land of Canaan became known in Egypt as the land of Israel (from where Israel/Jacob) came from, hence the decendants were known as Israelites.

There was no state of Israel when Isaac/Joseph was around. Correct? So why were the decendents known as Israelites. It wasn't because they came from the land of Israel...but because they were decendants of Israel (Jacob). The land of Israel is used in much the same way. The land from which Israel(Jacob) came from.

In Karnak, when Ramses II boasts of his victories in Karnak, he clearly states the 'kingdom the the Hittites'.
So why isn't the 'kingdom of the Israelites' used in the Ashkelon wall?? Cause there was no kingdom! No state.
Just as Nubia is mentioned in plenty of Ramses II expeditions. However there was no State of Nubia now was there. But there was a land.

Well, if it says so in the Biblical texts, it MUST be true. In fact archaeologists believe Jerusalem was a settlement long before the reputed time of Abraham. Even according to the Biblical texts, how could Abraham have founded Jerusalem when in Genesis 14:18, it was already recognised as a city of religious dispute ruled by Melchizedek, its high priest. Archaeoligst beleive Jerusalem has been the site of a settlement since about 4,000 BC, long before the accepted period for Abraham.

In the Quran it states that Jerusalem was a small village when Abraham arrived from Ur. Abraham then built the 'kibla', the stone alter from which the Temple of Jerusalem was built around it.

Which dates are these? Are these based on Edwin Thiele’s chronology? As I have stated before Egyptian dates and their relation to Biblical events are constantly being re-assessed.

Yes.

Re-assessed by whom? On what grounds. Can't you see that by 're-assessing' these dates, you re-write history.

Not long ago I had a debate with a jewish friend. He reckons that the pyramids were built by Jews. Forget the fact that they were built thousands of years before the appearance of the Israelites in Egypt. Yet he truly believed me, and you know what. He quoted a couple of Egyptologists.

Surprisingly, I found that he wasn't lieing. A number of historians are pushing this school of thought now.

Am I supposed to believe that now, since the historians are 're-assessing' the dates??
 
Shoshenk was Libyan actually, not Nubian.

Yep, I stand corrected. He was the founder of the Boubastite Dynasty.

Shoshenk reigned from 945-924. He wasn’t after the House of Solomon and David. After all you are arguing he went to war against Rehoboam, who was the son of Solomon.

I meant the reign of David and Solomon Sorry.
And the dates you've provided go against your claim that it may have been Ramses II that sacked Jerusalem.

Well the Egyptians called Canaan, “Pa-Canaan. ” The use of the word Israel certainly implies that the Israelites were in possession of at least parts of the land of Canaan at the time of Rameses the Great. It is a possibility that the Kingdom of Israel (as a state) did exist at the time of Rameses II.

No it is not, for reasons I have stated earlier.

The egyptians ruled all of Israel at the time of Ramses, not just parts. Where did you get that from?

The Hitittes temporarily gained control during the reign of Akhenaton, till Horemheb re-conquered, then during the reign of Ramses the Hittites once again regained temporary control untill Ramses led an expedition against the Hitittes which ended with the battle of Kadesh, which as you know the Egyptains one, and there was a treaty between the two states.

You want references.....go to any library and read a book about the history of egypt. This is accepted historical fact.

You use alternative historical 'school of thoughts' when it suits your needs. Hence your guilty of the exact same thing you accuse me and ah_19 of. Where's the evidence...any evidence of Israel existing during the time of Ramses II. And the opinion of a person or two is not evidence. Some egyptologists believe the Pyramids were built by Aliens, so I don't think that opinion can be supplied as evidence. And the word Israel does not imply the Israelites were possesion of parts of Israel, only in your mind it does.

Certainly to return to my original point, there’s no doubt that Israel did exist and not just as the name of a prophet of god.

Once again, when did anyone claim that Israel never existed.


Where’s your evidence that there was no State of Israel in ancient times? Are you suggesting that the United Monarchy of Israel under David and Solomon did not exist and never existed? Are you suggesting that the Israelite kings did not exist, that Kings such as Ahab, Josiah and Zedekiah did not exist or were ever kings over a Kingdom of Israel. The existence of the Kingdom of Israel is attested to in many places outside the Bible (in other places than Egypt) and I’d be very happy to give you a complete list of this.

SEe above.

No. I mean Moses. Joseph in fact has been identified by some Egyptologists as possibly being Yuya, a prominent official at the time of Amenhotep III, the father of Akhenaten. [

Perhaps Akhenaten WAS Moses.
/QUOTE]

I agree with your first quote. But then that would totally go against your claims that an Israeli state existed during the time of Ramses II.


As for Moses being Pharoah was he. What utter rubbish. I've read that book, and it was full of crap.

Maybe the Israelites were the original inhabitants of Egypt hey? Maybe they did build the pyramids. Do you believe that too.

Do you believe that the Kingdom of Israel stretched from the Nile to the Euphrates too. Greater Eretz?

Of course, how convenient to label any historian who may not give the Arab version of events to be labelled a part of Zionist plot. I suppose I’m part of a Zionist plot as well, because I disagree with you.

The same way as you label any version that doesn't agree with you as coming from 'whatreallyhappened.com'. Why do you believe that ah_19's sources are obviously 'lies' yet all yours must be accurate. Slightly arragont if you ask me.

And no I don't think you are a part of a zionist plot ;) sorry to disapoint you.
 
Originally posted by Lestat
If you notice, he used the term 'Zionist Israel', that would mean the Israel of today. All these points you bring up refer to the Israel of ancient times. And unless you believe that the state/kingdom of Israel has existed from then till now, then your points are totally irrelevant, since you are talking about a kingdom that ceased to exist 2000 years ago.

ah_19 stated that and I'll quote it yet again. "Israel (s) was a prophet of god, calling the land of zionism israel would be as pointless as calling australia jesus or bob or cook."

Yes, Israel was a prophet of god. It's also the name of an ancient Kingdom, who are the antecedents of a great many Jews. That's the point. That's why they called it Israel. Naming the state in Palestine in 1948, was not pointless at all.

Originally posted by Lestat

So yeah, where do you think the Justification of calling the Land Israel today comes from...ancient history??

Well why did the Jews call their occupied land after 1948 Israel? Because it hearkened back to a high point is Israeli/Jewish history, the time of one of THEIR greatest figures King David. It also happens to be in much the same geographical location and has the same capital city.

Originally posted by Lestat

Do you also believe that the European Union should be renamed 'the roman empire'?

Irelevant. Many of the countries in the European Union were never part of the Roman Empire in any case. Formation was different, beliefs and reasons for existing are different. I'd could make a greater case for the USA more closely resembling the Roman Empire than the European Union.

Originally posted by Lestat

Are you serious. Is that the best you can do. All I see is a map (looking suspiciously like the one from the BBC site, or Israeli govt website) of Israel in the time of David and Solomon. I never denied the state of Israel existed, but I do deny that it has existed for 2000 years, which has been claimed in this thread by Frodo....as a fact.

Not claimed by me. However there have been Jewish people living in the region for 2,000 years

Originally posted by Lestat

Show me a map of Israel 200, 500, 1000 years ago. You can't.

Never claimed a state of Israel existed at that time. However it is obvious there was some point to the jews naming their state in 1948 "Israel". And that was my point to ah_19.


Originally posted by Lestat

And this is your evidence that Jerusalem did not welcome the muslims as liberators. Would you expect the Patriarch of Jerusalem (a representative of the Byzantium Church) to welcome the Muslims as liberators.

Exactly. I rest my case. How many Muslims were in Jerusalem before 638 again? Do we know?

Originally posted by Lestat

You then say that the muslims eventually entered Jerusalem peacefully....after a seige. Isn't that a slight contradiction. Which was it?

Not a contradiction at all. There are many examples of history where a siege has taken place and yet the actual fall has been quite peaceful. Chateau Gaillard in 1204 for example. I fully agree that Jerusalem fell without a final violent assault on the city, because of negotiation. I have disagreed that there was no siege. In fact it appears there was a four month seige.

Originally posted by Lestat

The Christians. As i stated earlier, the jews agreed to the terms of peace, then later revolted. Not the first time in history, nor the last that they've done this.

As have many other peoples who follow all denominations.

Originally posted by Lestat

These jews were punished, i don't deny that. however they were allowed to practice there religon in peace...which was not the case under Christianity. So yes, eventually life also improved for the Jews.

And where have I said otherwise?

Originally posted by Lestat

So how do you explain that 461 years after the fall of jerusalem the majority of jerusalem had become muslim, unless some sort of mass conversion had occurred.

Your use of the term "at the time" suggests that the people of Jerusalem embraced Islam in great numbers and very suddenly. There is absolutely no evidence for this at all and this is what I am referring to. We're not talking about mass conversions such as the sudden conversion of he ruling class of Khazaria to Judaism, or the sudden conversion of Guthrum the Dane and the Danelaw in England at the time of Alfred the Great, or the sudden conversion of Clovis of the Franks, his court and significant numbers of his people to Christianity in the 5th century AD, or the sudden conversion of Ethelbert of Kent and many of his people under Augustine.

You stated......"However you can't deny that the majority of the inhabitants of Jerusalem at the time did convert to Islam."

No, they didn't "at the time"

I don't deny that over 461 years, Christian numbers fell to be GRADUALLY replaced by Muslim numbers. However that could well have been to migration of Muslims to the Muslim controlled Jerusalem and the slow emigration of Christians. I don't even deny there could have been some gradual conversions of Christians over 450 odd years. However there is NO evidence there was a sudden mass conversion of the people of Jerusalem from Christianity or Judaism to Islam to Jerusalem immediately after the fall of Jerusalem. it was you who used the words "at the time" not me. Certainly there was a significant number of Jews in the city in 1099, as the chroniclers talk about many of them being burned to death by the Crusaders.

Originally posted by Lestat
Of course I don't mean immediately, thats just silly, but soon after yes. Why doesn't it surprise you??

Where's your evidence? So there was a mass conversion of Christians/Jews in Jerusalem to Islam "soon after" AD 638. Even "soon after" is not really "at the time" is it?

Originally posted by Lestat

Do you believe they were forced to convert, or did muslims mass immigrate to Jerusalem.

I've already stated they weren't forced to convert.

Originally posted by Lestat

Why don't you offer an alternative on how the majority of the residents of Jerusalem became muslim 400 years after. Mind you, obviously this transformation had occurred well before the crusades, don't you agree?

Well I don't know. That's the point. We DON'T KNOW. Yes, the majority of the population of Jerusalem in 1099 appears to have been Muslim, but we don't now when and HOW the transformation of the populations religious outlook from 638 to 1099 took place. It could have been when the Seljuk Turks took control of Jerusalem...who knows. I don't know and I suspect neither do you, despite your claim which was "However you can't deny that the majority of the inhabitants of Jerusalem at the time did convert to Islam."

400 years is a long time and I don't subscribe to your assertation that the Christians and Jews converted "at the time" of the Fall of Jerusalem in 638. Mainly due to lack of evidence. "Soon after"? More likely, but you haven't provided any evidence that this was the case. You're trying to make it sound as if the Christians and the Jews saw the light and benevolence of Islam and came out of the Darkness.
 
Originally posted by Lestat
Quoted Eastern Historians?? Where? You haven't Quoted one eastern historian...not one.

Ahmed Osman ring a bell? I also quoted a couple of others in the other discussion we had on another thread.

Originally posted by Lestat

Seems thats the only claim which you refute, since you've used it a few times know as an example of Ah_19 'lies'?

I don't refute all of ah_19's claims at all. Partly because I don't enough about them and partly because he does back some things up with evidence, albiet quite poorly. Unfortunately I don't have the time to investigate his staements fully and make my own mind up.

However while ah_19 says some interesting things, I find myself becoming increasingly sceptical about his arguments when he presents information and makes statements that are clearly incorrect.
.
Originally posted by Lestat

So can I conclude that you don't refute his other claims.

I refuted the ones I disagree with. I'd have to investigate fully the other ones before I'd agree or disagree with them. That;s not to say theu don't make interesting reading.

They include:

"thirdly the jews of europe which are the ones that are taking the land of palestine by force are descendants of turks, they arent the original semites, there was a king in the region who converfted to judaism, as did most of his people, (northern turking border russian region) it is these people that the european jews descended from."

"Israel (s) was a prophet of god, calling the land of zionism israel would be as pointless as calling australia jesus or bob or cook."

"palestinians have been here longer."

I stated why I disagree with them. I'm not going to type it out all again.

Originally posted by Lestat

You used the mentioning of Jerusalem by Ramses II as evidence that the state of Israel existed. All i did was refute your claim that Jerusalem being mentioned on the Northern Pylon is evidence that the State of Israel did exist during the time of Ramses. The fact that we agree that Jerusalem existed long before Israel, makes this your statement irrelevant.

Taken by itself...no the mentioning of Jerusalem does not prove that the state of Israel existed. However given that Jerusalem is mentioned at the time of Rameses II and Israel is mentioned twice by his son Merenptah, suggests that at least there were Israelites in Canaan at the time of Rameses II. Israelite chariots are also on the Askelon Wall and it is considerd that chariots weren't used by the Israelites until about the time of David and Solomon.

And who was 'Shishak'? There are significant doubts that he was Shoshenq.


Originally posted by Lestat

Once again...I do not deny the existence of the Kingdom of Israel...I do however deny that this kingdom existed during the time of Ramses II, and I strongly deny that this kingdom or state has existed for 2000 years.

See statement above.

Never stated that this kingdom has existed for 2000 years. However where's your evidence that this kingdom did not exist during the reign of Rameses II.

Originally posted by Lestat

Like I said, I don't deny that Israel was mentioned on the Ashelon wall. I have seen it and I agree with you. However, the state of Israel or the kingdom of Israel was not mentioned.

Neither were many other nations that archaeologists believe were kingdoms.

Originally posted by Lestat

As I stated earlier, when Joseph came to Egypt, he later bought his brothers and fathers. From then on, the land of Canaan became known in Egypt as the land of Israel (from where Israel/Jacob) came from, hence the decendants were known as Israelites.

Actually the Egyptians knew it as Pa-Canaan.

Originally posted by Lestat

There was no state of Israel when Isaac/Joseph was around. Correct? So why were the decendents known as Israelites. It wasn't because they came from the land of Israel...but because they were decendants of Israel (Jacob). The land of Israel is used in much the same way. The land from which Israel(Jacob) came from.

And when were Isacc and Jacob around?

Originally posted by Lestat

In Karnak, when Ramses II boasts of his victories in Karnak, he clearly states the 'kingdom the the Hittites'.

So why isn't the 'kingdom of the Israelites' used in the Ashkelon wall?? Cause there was no kingdom! No state.

Neither were many other mentioned nations that archaeologists believe were kingdoms actually called Kingdoms.


Originally posted by Lestat

Just as Nubia is mentioned in plenty of Ramses II expeditions. However there was no State of Nubia now was there. But there was a land.

And yet Nubia was considered by archaeolgists and historians to be a kingdom at the time of Rameses II.

Originally posted by Lestat

In the Quran it states that Jerusalem was a small village when Abraham arrived from Ur. Abraham then built the 'kibla', the stone alter from which the Temple of Jerusalem was built around it.

Thios is not the impression given by the Bible and archaeolgists beleive that Jerusalem was a reasonably significant settlement at the time when Abraham was supposed to have existed.

Originally posted by Lestat

Yes.

Re-assessed by whom? On what grounds. Can't you see that by 're-assessing' these dates, you re-write history.

History is reassessed all the time by new archaeolgical discoveries or new interpretations of documents or even by science in the form of genetics.

Originally posted by Lestat

Not long ago I had a debate with a jewish friend. He reckons that the pyramids were built by Jews. Forget the fact that they were built thousands of years before the appearance of the Israelites in Egypt. Yet he truly believed me, and you know what. He quoted a couple of Egyptologists.

Surprisingly, I found that he wasn't lieing. A number of historians are pushing this school of thought now.

He wasn't lying? You mean the Jews did build the Pyramids? So in other words Abraham lived at or before he time of Cheops and Khafre and not roughly at the time of Tuthmosis III. Is that correct?

Am I supposed to believe that now, since the historians are 're-assessing' the dates?? [/B][/QUOTE]

Open your mind. Consider the evidence. Come to your own conclusions.
 
Originally posted by Lestat
I meant the reign of David and Solomon Sorry.
And the dates you've provided go against your claim that it may have been Ramses II that sacked Jerusalem.

No they don't. You're making the assumption that the "Shishak" who is mentioned in the Bible is the same person as Shoshenk I, who also raided jerusalem but did not conquer any Judean cities. I'm saying there is a school of thought that identifies the Biblical "Shishak" as Rameses II. The dates I gave for Shoshenk are obviously not Rameses II's.

Originally posted by Lestat

No it is not, for reasons I have stated earlier.

The egyptians ruled all of Israel at the time of Ramses, not just parts. Where did you get that from?

Where do you get your evidence from that Rameses II ruled all of Canaan. He certainly conducted a campaign there.

Originally posted by Lestat

The Hitittes temporarily gained control during the reign of Akhenaton, till Horemheb re-conquered, then during the reign of Ramses the Hittites once again regained temporary control untill Ramses led an expedition against the Hitittes which ended with the battle of Kadesh, which as you know the Egyptains one, and there was a treaty between the two states.

Did they have control of the land of Canaan and how do you know this occurred?

Originally posted by Lestat

You want references.....go to any library and read a book about the history of egypt. This is accepted historical fact.

I have a very large personal library on ancient and medieval history, which numbers about 1,500 non-fiction historical works both primary and secondary sources. I have plenty of references on the history of ancient Egypt.

Originally posted by Lestat
You use alternative historical 'school of thoughts' when it suits your needs. Hence your guilty of the exact same thing you accuse me and ah_19 of. Where's the evidence...any evidence of Israel existing during the time of Ramses II.

How long have you got? I've given you two pieces of evidence that it existed in Merenptah's time, because two monuments of his mention the name of Israel.

I could explain in detail Rohl's hypothesis, but it would obviously take too long and you wouldn't counter-argue it anyway. However let me know if you want me to do it.

Originally posted by Lestat

And the opinion of a person or two is not evidence. Some egyptologists believe the Pyramids were built by Aliens, so I don't think that opinion can be supplied as evidence. And the word Israel does not imply the Israelites were possesion of parts of Israel, only in your mind it does.

And only in your mind it doesn't. So it's OK for ah_19 to drag all these quotes from various places on he Internet and throw that at us as evidence and not for me to quote opinions and indeed specific peices of evidence from respected Egyptologists. You on the other hand have NOT quoted one historian whatsoever in ANYTHING you have stated. How about providing some evidence yourself to back up what you are saying?

Originally posted by Lestat
I agree with your first quote. But then that would totally go against your claims that an Israeli state existed during the time of Ramses II.

Why?

You agree with my first quote...what that Joseph may well be identified with Yuya....which was suggested by an Eastern Egyptolgist Ahmed Osman and then you state......

Originally posted by Lestat
As for Moses being Pharoah was he. What utter rubbish. I've read that book, and it was full of crap.

......which was suggested by exactly the same person who suggested that Yuya might be Joseph....which you agree with. So tell me why do you accept the first theory suggested by Osman and not the second part of the same theory suggested by Osman.

Originally posted by Lestat
Maybe the Israelites were the original inhabitants of Egypt hey? Maybe they did build the pyramids. Do you believe that too.

Don't know. Present the evidence and I'll consider it.

Originally posted by Lestat

The same way as you label any version that doesn't agree with you as coming from 'whatreallyhappened.com'. Why do you believe that ah_19's sources are obviously 'lies' yet all yours must be accurate. Slightly arragont if you ask me.

Where did I say all of ah_19's sources were lies? All I have said is that some of his statements are incorrect. However it appears from what he has said on these boards that much of it comes from that website. Not for one minute am I saying that everything is incorrect, but I know that a couple of "conspiracies" that are mentioned on there are incorrect. Certainly the site makes intersting reading, but I take it (as I do with many other things with a grain of salt. He advises many others that they shouldn't believe everything they read. I would suggest he needs to take some of his own advice.

Anyway it's clear:
1) Palestinians have not lived in Israel longer than Jews.
2) The Jews of Europe are not in the main solely descended from Turks who converted to Judaism in the 8th-9th centuries. This appears to be borne out by most historical studies and also by recent genetic studies.
3) The Jews calling their nation 'Israel' in 1948 is NOT pointless.
 
Well why did the Jews call their occupied land after 1948 Israel? Because it hearkened back to a high point is Israeli/Jewish history, the time of one of THEIR greatest figures King David. It also happens to be in much the same geographical location and has the same capital city.

Well thats arguable. At the time that Israel was established its capital city was Tel Aviv, and even today nearly all countries (besides US and Australia) still do not recognise Jerusalem to be the capital.

Not claimed by me. However there have been Jewish people living in the region for 2,000 years

I never denied that. As there has been Palestinians.
Where do you get your evidence from that Rameses II ruled all of Canaan. He certainly conducted a campaign there.

His Father Seti I conquered canaan/Israel during his compaign, including Syria and present day Iraq. His campaigns are described in detail at the Temple of Seti at Karnak, and also the Ramassuem in Luxor. Although earlier, the campaigns of Tutmoses III are also explained in detail at the Cairo Museam.

As for books, I have a thick book called 'Ancient kingdom of Egypt, not sure on the Author. Also a series on the Life of Ramses (5 book series, written by a famous Egyptologist (once again, can't remember the name but will post it tomorrow, I have these at home). Between Tutmoses III and Ramses II, the whole area was under Egyptian rule.

Did they have control of the land of Canaan and how do you know this occurred?

Well I don't know for sure cause I wasnt there. Most of what I know I've drawn from books I've read and from what I saw and learnt from the times i've been there (Hyrogliphics). Most of the books I've read are 5-10 years old, so obviously from what you been saying there are lots of new theories that I've got to brush up on.

I have a very large personal library on ancient and medieval history, which numbers about 1,500 non-fiction historical works both primary and secondary sources. I have plenty of references on the history of ancient Egypt.

I can't say I have that many :)

I could explain in detail Rohl's hypothesis, but it would obviously take too long and you wouldn't counter-argue it anyway. However let me know if you want me to do it.

I've always got time for any theory in egyptology. So yeah, if you don't mind I'd like to hear it.

Had a look at some of his theory. Seems this Rohl guy didn't really like Kenneth Kitchen to much.

Yet to find the reference that he was Jewish, however I'm sure I've read it before. He was however a freemason. Found a website on his 'Temple of Mystery', where its stated.

Exactly. I rest my case. How many Muslims were in Jerusalem before 638 again? Do we know?

Yes, but how bout the commoners. I never claimed that the Patriarch would of seen the muslims as liberators.

Zero...your point being?

Some muslims would argue that they were all muslims. Since muslims believe that the Quran was the final installment of the word of God (bible, Torah), and Since the word Islam is a translation of Salam...which is Shalom which means Peace, as well as 'Submission' to god, stemming from the Araimic word 'Shaloh'. Hence the word Muslim can be translated to 'he/she who submits to God'. And since at that time the message of Islam had not yet reached Jerusalem, you can say they were all muslim ;)

You're trying to make it sound as if the Christians and the Jews saw the light and benevolence of Islam and came out of the Darkness.

Not exactly....but something along those lines. I agree it wasn't immediately, however there's no denying, and you've admitted yourself that over the next 400 years the majority of the people converted to Islam. We agree that why or how is unknown...however it did happen.
And going by what most peoples understanding of Islam today(what I've read on some of these threads and see on the news)....How is that possible???)
 
Originally posted by Lestat
Well thats arguable. At the time that Israel was established its capital city was Tel Aviv, and even today nearly all countries (besides US and Australia) still do not recognise Jerusalem to be the capital.

I didn't realise other countries had to specifically recognise a country's decision to make a particular centre capital city. Could I have a list of which countries don't recognise Jerusalem as the capital city of Israel. There are over 200 countries, so I'll expect a fairly long list.

Originally posted by Lestat

His Father Seti I conquered canaan/Israel during his compaign, including Syria and present day Iraq. His campaigns are described in detail at the Temple of Seti at Karnak, and also the Ramassuem in Luxor. Although earlier, the campaigns of Tutmoses III are also explained in detail at the Cairo Museam.

All the inscriptions of Seti I say is that he conducted campaigns against the Hatti (Hittites) and the Shasu, who have been identified as living in what is now called the Sinai peninsula. Certainly Seti I passed through Canaan on his way to battle the Hatti and is recorded as defeating kings in Northern Palestine. However this does not necesarily mean that there was not Israelites living in southern Palestine.

Originally posted by Lestat

As for books, I have a thick book called 'Ancient kingdom of Egypt, not sure on the Author. Also a series on the Life of Ramses (5 book series, written by a famous Egyptologist (once again, can't remember the name but will post it tomorrow, I have these at home). Between Tutmoses III and Ramses II, the whole area was under Egyptian rule.

Well it obviously wasn't for the entire time. Seti I and Rameses II AND Merenptah all had to conduct campaigns into the area.

Originally posted by Lestat

I've always got time for any theory in egyptology. So yeah, if you don't mind I'd like to hear it.

I'll see if I can put it up in the near future.

Originally posted by Lestat

Had a look at some of his theory. Seems this Rohl guy didn't really like Kenneth Kitchen to much.

He certainly challenges a great deal of what Kitchen wrote.

Originally posted by Lestat

Yes, but how bout the commoners. I never claimed that the Patriarch would of seen the muslims as liberators.

Given that Christianity was less tolerant of other religions and Islam was a growing religion, I'd say most of the pop'n of Jerusalem were Chrisitian and Jews at the time. After all the Roman Empire had been Christian for over 300 years up to that point.

Originally posted by Lestat

Not exactly....but something along those lines. I agree it wasn't immediately, however there's no denying, and you've admitted yourself that over the next 400 years the majority of the people converted to Islam. We agree that why or how is unknown...however it did happen.

No, I didn't admit the majority of people were 'converted'. My definition of 'converted' is where one person follows one religion and then for whatever reason decides to follow another. You don't know if people in Jerusalem after 638 were "converted".

I stated that I didn't deny that over 461 years, Christian numbers fell to be GRADUALLY "replaced" by Muslim numbers. However that could well have been to migration of Muslims to the Muslim controlled Jerusalem and the slow or perhaps even quick emigration of Christians. If this happened this is not conversion. It is migration. I don't even deny there could have been some gradual conversions of Christians over 450 odd years. However there is NO evidence that Christian people in Jerusalem were "converted" shortly after the fall of Jerusalem. Neither is there any evidence that any Christians were "converted" in Jerusalem between 638-1099. I wouldn't be surprised if some did in fact convert, however if you trying use this example of Jerusalem to promote Islam as a wonderful faith, where people who are exposed to it are wonderfully converted to the light, then you can't use what happened after the Fall of Jerusalem in 638 as evidence that is the case. You have no evidence that was in fact what happened.
 
Christian Jaqo is the egyptologyst/author.



I didn't realise other countries had to specifically recognise a country's decision to make a particular centre capital city. Could I have a list of which countries don't recognise Jerusalem as the capital city of Israel. There are over 200 countries, so I'll expect a fairly long list.

The only countries that do recognise Jerusalem as the capital is Australia, the US, Turkey and India. Though the US claim this to be unnofficial. None of the embassies though are in Jerusalem (all in Tel Aviv, since Jerusalem is still disputed terrirtory), though the US decided 3-4 months ago to move there embassy to Jerusalem (however they claim they have no plans to do so). The annexation of Jerusalem is still considered illegal by the UN, and a number of UN resolutions have been made on the issue, only to be vetoed by the US.

All the inscriptions of Seti I say is that he conducted campaigns against the Hatti (Hittites)

Incorrect. the Hittites were situated in Anatolia (present day Turkey). The battle of Kadesh was fought in Syria.
I think you may be confused with the Hyksos, they were thought to be of Sinai/Canaan. They conquered Egypt and the end of the middle kingdom, with the use of Chariots. How could Ramses and Seti expeditions reach Syria if the Hittites were based in Sinai? What did they do, defeat the Hittites in Sanai, then just keep on going? Whe exactly were they fighting in Syria. Have you heard of the battle of Kadesh???

Well it obviously wasn't for the entire time. Seti I and Rameses II AND Merenptah all had to conduct campaigns into the area.

As did many Pharoahs before them. As I said earlier Tutmoses III was the first pharoah to conquer the area, and he was around long before the pharoahs you've named. The area was in Egyptian control/influence long before Seti or Ramses.

Under Akhenaton the Hittites invaded and reached Caanaan before Akhenaton died, then a certain General Horremheb reppelled the attack.

Well it obviously wasn't for the entire time. Seti I and Rameses II AND Merenptah all had to conduct campaigns into the area.

Taking me literally again. Obviously not. Throughout history provinces revolted. Happens through history again and again. The provinces revolted, then a campaign was conducted to quash the revolt. Totally irrelevant.

He certainly challenges a great deal of what Kitchen wrote.

Interesting reading so far.

No, I didn't admit the majority of people were 'converted'. My definition of 'converted' is where one person follows one religion and then for whatever reason decides to follow another. You don't know if people in Jerusalem after 638 were "converted".

And you don't know if they didn't convert. Lets agree to disagree.
You have no evidence that was in fact what happened.

Solid evidence...no I don't. ANd you have no evidence that it didn't. However, as you said 400 years after, the majority of Jerusalem was muslim. This to me tells me that it is more like it did, then it didn't. But like I said above, neither of us will be proven right or wrong. so lets agree to disagree.

I'll see if I can put it up in the near future.

Thanks, that'll be great!
 

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Originally posted by Lestat
Christian Jaqo is the egyptologyst/author.


Originally posted by Lestat

The only countries that do recognise Jerusalem as the capital is Australia, the US, Turkey and India.

OK. So in other words more countries than the US and Australia.

Originally posted by Lestat

Though the US claim this to be unnofficial. None of the embassies though are in Jerusalem (all in Tel Aviv, since Jerusalem is still disputed terrirtory), though the US decided 3-4 months ago to move there embassy to Jerusalem (however they claim they have no plans to do so). The annexation of Jerusalem is still considered illegal by the UN, and a number of UN resolutions have been made on the issue, only to be vetoed by the US.

Fair enough. However could I have a source for that? For example do New Zealand or the Papua New Guinea for example recognise Jerusalem as the capital of Israel?

Originally posted by Lestat
Incorrect. the Hittites were situated in Anatolia (present day Turkey). The battle of Kadesh was fought in Syria.

Err, where did I imply that the Hittites were located in southern Palestine. I said the Shasu lived in southern Palestine...not the Hittites. Seti I did pass through Canaan to battle the Hatti, he wouldn't have needed to pass through Canaan to battle the Shasu in the southern Palestine/Sinai area

I stated
"All the inscriptions of Seti I say is that he conducted campaigns against the Hatti (Hittites) and the Shasu, who have been identified as living in what is now called the Sinai peninsula. Certainly Seti I passed through Canaan on his way to battle the Hatti and is recorded as defeating kings in Northern Palestine. However this does not necesarily mean that there was not Israelites living in southern Palestine."


Originally posted by Lestat
I think you may be confused with the Hyksos, they were thought to be of Sinai/Canaan. They conquered Egypt and the end of the middle kingdom, with the use of Chariots.

No. I'm not. Seti I fought the Hatti in northern Palestine/Syria. I never stated he didn't.

Originally posted by Lestat

How could Ramses and Seti expeditions reach Syria if the Hittites were based in Sinai? What did they do, defeat the Hittites in Sanai, then just keep on going? Whe exactly were they fighting in Syria. Have you heard of the battle of Kadesh???

They were fighting the Hatti in northern Syria. I never stated that they weren't. Read my comment again carefully.

Originally posted by Lestat

As did many Pharoahs before them. As I said earlier Tutmoses III was the first pharoah to conquer the area, and he was around long before the pharoahs you've named. The area was in Egyptian control/influence long before Seti or Ramses.

And so, Egypt declined in power and extent between Tutmosis III and Seti/Rameses II.

Originally posted by Lestat

Under Akhenaton the Hittites invaded and reached Caanaan before Akhenaton died, then a certain General Horremheb reppelled the attack.

In fact it's been suggested that Horemheb gave his daughter in marriage to King Solomon of Israel.


Originally posted by Lestat

Taking me literally again. Obviously not. Throughout history provinces revolted. Happens through history again and again. The provinces revolted, then a campaign was conducted to quash the revolt. Totally irrelevant.

Apart from Rameses II there seems to be a singular lack of Egyptian activity in Judah (ie around Jerusalem). It is possible that there was an Israelite state around the time of Rameses II.

Originally posted by Lestat

And you don't know if they didn't convert. Lets agree to disagree.

No, I don't know. But I'm not making any claim that they did or didn't. You are.

Originally posted by Lestat

Solid evidence...no I don't. ANd you have no evidence that it didn't. However, as you said 400 years after, the majority of Jerusalem was muslim. This to me tells me that it is more like it did, then it didn't. But like I said above, neither of us will be proven right or wrong. so lets agree to disagree.

As stated before, I've never made a claim that the population of Jerusalem "converted" to Islam "at the time" or "soon after". That's my point. I don't know what happened as there is no evidence for or against. Therefore I make no claims on what happened. You made a claim, one which I dispute on the grounds that you have absolutely no basis for the claim. It appears therefore you made the claim with an agenda in mind...which appears to be to promote Islam.

Originally posted by Lestat

Thanks, that'll be great!

I'll get it up soon.
 
Rohl¡¦s theory in a nutshell.

Rohl's theory in a nutshell.

- Believes that the events of the Bible are real history, but have just been dated wrongly.

- Puts forward the notion that the traditional method of dating Egyptian history which is to add up the sequence of regnal years of the ruling monarchs back from the birth of Christ is incorrect.

- Maintains that the traditional way of dating, which was largely decided in the formative years of ancient world studies in the early years had fundamental mistakes, which have been repeated by today's scholars.

- Claims that one basic assumption held in dating Egypt¡¦s kings is based heavily on the identification of Shishak of the Bible with Pharoah Shoshenq of the 22nd Dynasty. Famous Egyptologist Champollion made the link between the two on the basis of one word (ywd-h-mlk) found on the reliefs of Shoshenk which Champoillon translated as Iouda-ha-malek (Judah the Kingdom). In fact several Egyptologists including Wilhelm Max-Muller translates this word as "Hand of the King". As well as this the words position in the list is between cities that were in northern Israel and not in Judah. Only one of the cities mentioned in Shoshenk's list is actually in Judah. The Second Book of Chronicles 11:5-12 gives a full list of the cities that Rehoboam fortified. Only one, Aijalon is mentioned. If Shoshenk is Pharaoh of the Bible, why did he attack his ally Jeroboam of Israel. Shishak¨ is allied to Israel in the Bible and attacks Judah, while Shoshenq attacks Israel and leaves Judah alone.

- Believes that some dynasties were partly contemporary and not sequential, meaning that accepted chronology may be out of date.

- Rejects the notion that Rameses II was the Pharoah of the Exodus. Also rejects the more recent notion that Merneptah was the Pharoah of the Exodus. Why? According to I Kings 6:1-2, the Exodus from Egypt took 480 years before the construction of the First Temple of Jerusalem by Solomon. Today many Biblical scholars believe Solomon founded in the temple about 968 BC. This places the Exodus at about 1447-8 BC. Yet Rameses is generally accepted by many (not all) modern scholars to have ruled in 1279-1213 BC. This places the Exodus at least 168 years before Rameses came to the throne. Secondly the enslaved Israelites are supposed to have built Pi-Raamses for Ramasses II. Yet in Genesis 47.11 clearly states Joseph¡K¡¨settled his father (Jacob) and brothers in Egypt, the best part of the country ¡V the region of Ramasses ¡V as Pharaoh had ordered.¡¨ As the name Ramesses is a 19th Dynasty phenomenon. How could the land of Ramesses exist in Joseph¡¦s time (before the Exodus of 1447 BC) when Ramesses I was yet to come to the throne. In other words there is NO compelling evidence to suggest that Ramasses is the Pharoah of the Exodus. The Exodus was BEFORE Rameses.

- Demonstrates that three of the four pillars upon which Egyptian chronology have several flaws. One is the sacking of Thebes by the Assyrians in 664 (year 1 of Psamtek I), which is sound. Two is Shoshenk of Egypt = Shishak of the Bible. Three: Ahmose¡¦s accession in 1550 BC is based on the rising of the Dog Star is disputed by many Egyptologists, such as Jurgen Beckereth, Helck, Hornung, Luft, Barta and Janssen all question its reliability. Four: Rameses II began to rule Egypt in 1279 because a lunar date supplied on a papyrus document fell in 1228 BC, which was called his 52nd year. However this is based on TWO and THREE and if these are unsound, then FOUR is doubtful also.

- Suggests that a NEW chronology for Egypt needs to be built from the ground up. Suggests there are several continuous Egyptian genealogies that do survive, such as The graffito genealogy of Khnemibre 936-496 BC in the Wadi Hammamat, The statue genealogy of Nespaherenhat in the Cairo Museum and The Memphite genealogy of the High Priests of Ptah, now in Berlin that could be used as a basis. The genealogy of Royal Architects is from Khenimbre the Royal Architect in the 26th year of Darius I, which is reliably dated to 426 BC back through twenty-two generations to Rahotep, vizier of Egypt during the time of Rameses II. Assuming that an average generation is twenty years (studies seem to suggest that the average lifespan of a person was 30 years) then Rameses II can therefore be dated around 936 BC¡Knot 1279 BC. Suggests also that Shoshenq was about 823 BC

- Suggests on the basis of this genealogy that the lifespans attributed to Egyptian kings (generations) are too long. All three alternative genealogies are several generations shorter than the Egyptians over the same time span, perhaps by up to 100 years. This is assuming that the succession of each Dynasty was sequential and not overlapping. He also suggests a new chronology that places Rameses

- Suggests that Shishak of the Bible was Rameses II. He believes that Shishak may be a shortening of the way the Hittites wrote Rameses (ie. RiamaSHESHA). The Hebrews would have written it SHASHA. The Hebrew word Shashak means "assaulter"¨ or ¡s the man who crushes¨, which may indeed by a play on the name of Ramesses and his deeds in Palestine. Shoshenk I did not record any victory over Jerusalem, which if known to exist in Rameses II's time (the point of mentioning the northern pylon), it would have definitely existed later on in Shoshenk's reign. Certainly the Bible refers to the defeat of King Rehoboam of Israel by Shishak and certainly Rameses II went up to Jerusalem and plunder the city of Shalem, which of course is mentioned on the list of the towns Ramasses II plundered in Year 8 of his Reign (supposedly 1272 BC). on the Northern pylon tower of the Ramasseum in Thebes.

- Added to that of course is the famous Israel stele which was discovered in Merenptah's mortuary in 1896 by Petrie. Quite apart from the Askelon Wall, which also believed now to be attributed to Merenptah and about his father Ramesses II, this is the oldest known archaeological evidence for the existence of Israel outside of the Old Testament itself. As well as this there is a scene near the statement "Israel is laid waste - her seed is no more" is a chariot fleeing Merenptah's chariot. Now if Moses was supposed to be running around in the desert at the time of Rameses II, and this battle picture is against the Israelites as would seem to be the case by the location of the picture¡Khow is this so? The Israelites military tactics during the time of Joshua and the Judges suggests that they did not use chariots. I Kings 10:26 also suggests that the Israelites did not use chariots until the time of King Solomon, who built up a large chariot force of 1400. So for an Israelite chariot to exist it would have to have been at or after the time of Solaomon not before.

- The cultural wealth of the traditional era of Solomon is not reflected in the archaeology of Palestine at the time Solomon was supposed to have lived. (between 1,000-900 BC) However archaeological diggings at Megiddo has found a palace a royal and ivory treasure and a temple¡Kall of which have been dated at the same time as Seti I and Horemheb, under the revised Chronology. In fact the only Egyptian remains ever found at Jerusalem are dated to the same time¡K(Solomon married Pharoah¡'s daughter).

- Claims that Horemheb was the pharaoh who gave his daughter in marriage to Solomon.

- Says that the Habiru of the Amarna letters were "Hebrews".

- Says that story of Labayu, leader of the hill country in the Amarna Letters has many of the same elements as the story of Saul. Labayu = Saul.

- The situation described in the several of the Amarna Letters from Palestine reflects the activities of David in the Bible. David is called "Dadua" in the Amarna Letters.

- El Amarna Letter EA256 contains the names of five of the leading characters from the Book of Samuel. Mutbaal, son of Labayu (Ishbaal, son of Saul), Ayab (Joab), Benenima (Baanah), Yishuya (Jesse, father of David) David therefore was a contemporary of Akhentaten, Tutankhamen, Ay and Horemheb who forged his kingdom when Egypt was politically weak.

- The XVIIIth Dynasty began in about 1190 BC, not 1570 BC.

- The Israelites were slaves in Egypt from the late 12th Dynasty and throughout most of the 13th Dynasty.

- A papyrus now at the Brooklyn Museum in the USA has been dated to Sobekhotep III of the 13th Dynasty. It mentions several Israelite names including Menahem, Issachar (five times), Asher and Shiprah. 50% of the 95 names have been indentified at Semitic. It also mentions the term Apiru (Hebrew?) and also calls the people on it "aamu¡" or Asiatic.

- The Pharoah of the Exodus may be identified with Dudimose, 36th ruler of the 13th Dynasty, in whose reign according to Manetho, "God" smote the Egyptians. Immanuel Velikovsky also has also placed the Exodus in the late 13th century.

- Joseph was vizier of Egypt during the reign of Amenemhet III, which Rohl dates to between 1682 BC to 1636 BC, about 200 years after the conventional chronology does. A severe famine was recorded in Egypt after the 20th year of Amenemhat¡¦s reign.

- Joseph tomb is speculated to have been found at Tell ed-Daba
 
As stated before, I've never made a claim that the population of Jerusalem "converted" to Islam "at the time" or "soon after". That's my point. I don't know what happened as there is no evidence for or against. Therefore I make no claims on what happened. You made a claim, one which I dispute on the grounds that you have absolutely no basis for the claim. It appears therefore you made the claim with an agenda in mind...which appears to be to promote Islam.

No evidence, no basis???

We agreed that 400 years later the majority of Jerusalem was Muslim. That is evidence, perhaps not as solid at you would like (however you seem to accept other circumstantial evidence), and is definately a basis.

Or do you dispute it because 'it appears to be promoting Islam'. Which by the way is not my agenda. I'm definately no Sheik.

Fair enough. However could I have a source for that? For example do New Zealand or the Papua New Guinea for example recognise Jerusalem as the capital of Israel?

From the UN website...

http://srch1.un.org/plweb-cgi/fastw...ator=and&TemplateName=predoc.tmpl&setCookie=1

http://srch1.un.org/plweb-cgi/fastw...ator=and&TemplateName=predoc.tmpl&setCookie=1

Occupation of Jerusalem is illegal...hence it cannot be the capital.
Some other articles from the UN you might find interesting...

http://srch1.un.org/plweb-cgi/fastw...ator=and&TemplateName=predoc.tmpl&setCookie=1

http://srch1.un.org/plweb-cgi/fastw...ator=and&TemplateName=predoc.tmpl&setCookie=1

http://srch1.un.org/plweb-cgi/fastw...ator=and&TemplateName=predoc.tmpl&setCookie=1


As you can see from these links, The UN considers occupation of Jerusalem as illegal....hence Jerusalem is not the capital of Israel!

There's plenty more....go have a look at how much Israel has defied the international community...much more then Iraq or any other country in the history of the UN.
 
I stand correncted. the US is yet to recognise Jerusalem as the capital.....yet.

http://weekly.ahram.org.eg/2002/607/op3.htm

Just in case you feel that resource to be biased, I'll give you another biased resource.

http://www.us-israel.org/jsource/Peace/jer2002.html

http://www.onejerusalem.org/ItemDetail.asp?Language=English&ItemID=1161

more links that show that Jerusalem is NOT recognised as capital of Israel.

http://web.idirect.com/~cic/publications/agendaCIC/item8.html

http://www.usmlo.org/archive/2002-13/06-40-20.htm

http://www.centerpeace.org/factsheets/fact-sheet-jerusalem.htm

NOt recognised by Brittan.

http://www.britishconsulate.org/chancery/jru.htm

http://news.bbc.co.uk/1/hi/world/middle_east/295001.stm

Unable to find a full list of countries that do and don't. will get back to you.
 
Originally posted by Lestat
No evidence, no basis???

We agreed that 400 years later the majority of Jerusalem was Muslim. That is evidence, perhaps not as solid at you would like (however you seem to accept other circumstantial evidence), and is definately a basis.

Yes, but that doesn't mean or imply that the existing Christians and Jews in the city of Jerusalem in 638 "converted" to Islam, either "at the time" or "soon after". The fact that the majority of Jerusalem was Muslim 400 years later could have quite easily occurred through the slow migration of Muslims over that time period to Jerusalem and the slow emigration of Christians. I even conceded that perhaps some existing Christians might have converted. However your original statement cannot be proved. You made the claim, not I.

However there is NO evidence that the majority of the population of Jerusalem changed their religion ("converted") to Islam either "at the time" or "soon after" the Fall of Jerusalem in 638.

Originally posted by Lestat
Or do you dispute it because 'it appears to be promoting Islam'. Which by the way is not my agenda. I'm definately no Sheik.

I'm not sure why you made the statement in the first place. What was the point of it?

Originally posted by Lestat

From the UN website...

http://srch1.un.org/plweb-cgi/fastw...ator=and&TemplateName=predoc.tmpl&setCookie=1

http://srch1.un.org/plweb-cgi/fastw...ator=and&TemplateName=predoc.tmpl&setCookie=1

Occupation of Jerusalem is illegal...hence it cannot be the capital.

Illegal by the dictates of the United Nation certainly.

However my original statement was "It (Israel) also happens to be in much the same geographical location and has the same capital city."

It's clear that Israel regards Jerusalen as it's capital, which was my original statement. King David also, according to the Bible anyway, regarded Jerusalem as his capital city.




Thanks for the links. I've read a couple. I'll read more when I get time.

Originally posted by Lestat
As you can see from these links, The UN considers occupation of Jerusalem as illegal....hence Jerusalem is not the capital of Israel!

The Israeli's clearly regard Jerusalem as their capital. Whether that is right or wrong in the eyes of the international community is another issue.

Originally posted by Lestat

There's plenty more....go have a look at how much Israel has defied the international community...much more then Iraq or any other country in the history of the UN.

I understand reasonably well what Israel has done to defy UN resolutions over the last 40 years. As much as you might deny it or be surprised by it, I'm not on anyone's side here. Both the Israeli's and Palestinian's have legitimate valid points and both sides have their faults. By your statements on this and other threads, you clearly come down on the side of the Palestinians and you argue their case.

Frankly I'm against a war being pursued against Iraq. I also have sympathy for the plight of the Palestinians. However if people like ah_19 ae going to argue for one side, then he at least could make sure the facts are reasonably sound, instead of taking liberties with truth to make his arguments seem more sound.

Interesting to note he hasn't defended my criticisms of his points.
 
I'm not sure why you made the statement in the first place. What was the point of it?

I'm not to sure either tell ya the truth...but I think it was to point out that Muslims (in its purer form, muslims of the past) aren't as bad as we keep hearing. I agree that today extremists have hijacked the religon, and manipulated towards there own needs (I do however also think that persecusion and oppression has also played a major role in its demise). However the Islamic empire was once the most enlightened civilisations of history...a fact that I feel has largely been ignored by western historians...as ah_19 pointed out in his previous post...some western historians are now admitting too.

It stemmed from the other thread/discussion we were having.

It's clear that Israel regards Jerusalen as it's capital, which was my original statement.

You wouldn't expect otherwise would you? They also believe that the biblical Israel was made up of lands from the Nile to the Euphrates (greater eretz), so if that grounds for them to invade Egypt and Iraq as well??

The Israeli's clearly regard Jerusalem as their capital.

They also regard the westbank and Gaza as parts of Israel proper. It doesn't change the fact that its illegal under international law.

Remember Iraq also regarded Kuwait to be Iraqi territory. You can argue that there claim to Kuwait is just as strong as Israel's claims are.

Frankly I'm against a war being pursued against Iraq. I also have sympathy for the plight of the Palestinians. However if people like ah_19 ae going to argue for one side, then he at least could make sure the facts are reasonably sound, instead of taking liberties with truth to make his arguments seem more sound

Of course he's going to be a little biased to his cause, as am i, I'm not so blind to not realise that. We all do that to a certain degree, look for information that is going to support our point/argument. As do all posters here, at different degrees. Perhaps thats just human nature.

What I objected too was the way you discarded ah_19's post off hand, not just the area's we have discussed, but all of it (well i got the impression you did anyway, perhaps i jumped the gun). I agree that some of what he posted was incorrect, however I think a lot of it was true. Especailly the quotes made by senior Israeli govt figures.

And yes I did get the impression you were on the Israeli side of this debate. You can see how I came to that conclusion can't you?
 
Originally posted by Lestat
You wouldn't expect otherwise would you? They also believe that the biblical Israel was made up of lands from the Nile to the Euphrates (greater eretz), so if that grounds for them to invade Egypt and Iraq as well??

Who is "they"? According to the Bible that appears to be the land that was supposedly promised to them. However archaeologically there are huge doubts as to whether ancient Israel stretched that far. That's not to say it didn't by the way.

Originally posted by Lestat

What I objected too was the way you discarded ah_19's post off hand, not just the area's we have discussed, but all of it (well i got the impression you did anyway, perhaps i jumped the gun). I agree that some of what he posted was incorrect, however I think a lot of it was true. Especailly the quotes made by senior Israeli govt figures.

I challenged three statements he made. If I disagreed with the rest of it I would have said so. If you'll recall I disagreed with the statement also that the Islamic Empire stretched from Morocco to India at the death of Mohammed. It didn't.

Originally posted by Lestat

And yes I did get the impression you were on the Israeli side of this debate. You can see how I came to that conclusion can't you?

No, not really, apart from the fact that ah_19 is on the Palestinian side and I took issue with his statements. Note that I have NEVER criticised the Palestinian position, (or the Israeli one either)
 
An excellent reason to bump a nearly fourteen year-old thread. Your contribution to that discussion is of inestimable value.

I thought it was a good read.

However it you look at this article - http://themillenniumreport.com/2015/11/israel-a-nation-founded-upon-a-monumental-lie/

Which tackles a subject the history books overlook it adds a twist:


Once upon a time, hundreds of years ago, there was an extraordinarily evil kingdom. A land ruled by a wicked king who filled his court with practitioners of ancient Babylonian black arts, and occult oligarchs. A land inhabited by an aggressive demented race of thieves, murderers, and highwaymen, who would prey on travellers, steal from them, murder them, and then assume their identity. The citizens of neighbouring lands lived in constant fear and trepidation of this menacing realm, its criminal population, and its warlike tendencies.

Anyone could be forgiven for thinking that the above opening is the prologue to a mythical fable from times past, but such a sinister country, complete with its equally terrorizing inhabitants did exist. The country was called Khazaria, and its populace Khazars. A land to the north of Georgia and the south of Bulgaria, between the Black and Caspian seas.

The history of the Khazars, has been almost completely excised from history books and public records, and many hours of intense research were required to reconstruct this purposely hidden secret history of the Khazars. The following is the true history of Khazaria, its evolution, and its present day influences on our society....
 
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