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- #51
Originally posted by Lestat
Well, is he wrong?? The point he made as that Israel was a prophet of God (Jacob), and that the nation of Israel was named after a prophet. Judah was also named after Jacobs son, Judah. I see nothing wrong with his comment whatsoever.
The point I believe he was trying to make is that there was no justification for naming the country Israel. That calling the land “Israel” is pointless. It clearly is not. That’s the point I was making. It’s a point you appear to have missed.
Originally posted by Lestat
Not difficult to conclude? And how did you come to that conclusion. How many semetic's have blue eyes for one? How many semetic's are central European in appearance? Genetic studies have found that many Ashkenazic jews have no genetic trace to the semetic jews. Cause the Israeli govt put a stop to these findings being made public (on the grounds that it was anti-semetic, which is just rubbish), then you'd have no basis whatsoever for your argument, and I suspect you'd have a different opinion on the matter.
The Shephardic jews (majority of them remained in Israel, hence preserving there roots) I agree are semetic, however unfortunately they are also treated second rate in Israel, second to the Ashkenazic jews. Then we look at the Ethiopian Jews, treated only marginally better then the arabs. It seems in Israel your jewishness is judged on the color of your skin.
Genetic studies? Which genetic studies would these be? For example a recent study in 2000 examined the Y chromosomes of 119 Ashkenazi and Sephardic Jews and 143 Israeli and Palestinian Arabs. Their conclusion? . That the Y chromosomes of many of the men had key segments of DNA that were so similar that they revealed that most of the men must have had common ancestors within the past several thousand years. They found that many of the Jewish subjects were descended from ancestors who they believe originated in the Middle East. In another recent study of 1371 men from around the world, geneticist Michael Hammer of the University of Arizona found that the Y chromosome in Middle Eastern Arabs was almost indistinguishable from that of Jews.
Kevin Alan Brooks a geneticist, has also concluded that certain Jewish features of the Y Chromosome (that he calls the Cohen Modal Haplotype), is found also amongst Kurds, Armenians, Anatolian Turks, and Arabs. He also states that Jewish genetic diseases are also found in Middle Eastern populations. He makes the point also that Jewish mitochondrial DNA (which is inherited only through the female) resembles certain European peoples.
The latest conclusion from the geneticists is that some Jews look like their neighbors because of maternal non-Israelite ancestry, whereas the paternal roots of most Jewish communities generally stem from ancient Israel.
Originally posted by Lestat
So what...so did Palestine. So did Prussia. whats your point? Ah_19's point is that just because a nation existed hundreds of years ago, it is no claim for the land today. So whether it existed or not....who cares!
My point was that you asked for a map that shows Israel existing before 1948. I see one was provided.
Originally posted by Lestat
So you agree palestine also existed. Finally we agree on something
Of course. Where did I ever say that Palestine did not exist?
Originally posted by Lestat
Incorrect.
The Mullah Omar Ibn Khattab sent emissaries to Jerusalem over a four month period to negotiate the surrender of Jerusalem. There was no seige, no historical evidence of a seige. Just a lie fabricated to discredit the Islamic religon, one of many.
A quote from a reference book I have by historian Antony Bridge…
“After the victory of Ajnadin the Muslim forces spread in all directions in Jordan and Palestine. The towns of Sabtah, Gaza, Nablus, Bait-Jibrin and many other towns were captured one after the other. That cleared the way to Jerusalem. The city of Jerusalem sacred to the Jews and the Christians was strongly fortified. It was protected on every side naturally by deep valleys and steep ascents. Further, military engines were mounted on the walls which were intended for playing havoc with the advancing invader. It was the winter season, and the severity of the winter added to the difficulties of the besieging Muslim force. The siege dragged on and the Byzantines offered very stiff resistance.
Amr bin al-As the Muslim Commander in the southern sector wrote to Abu Ubaida for reinforcement. By this time, northern Syria had fallen to the Muslims and Aba Ubaida was able to spare many contingents which rushed to the aid of the Muslims fighting in the southern sector. When the citizens of Jerusalem came to know that the besieging Muslim forces has been considerably strengthened they lost heart. Finding further resistance futile, the Patriarch of Jerusalem sued for peace. He said that it was written in their holy books that the city would surrender to the man who was the best among the Muslims. He accordingly desired that the Caliph Umar (ra) should come to Jerusalem personally to receive the surrender of the city.”
Originally posted by Lestat
The fall of Jerusalem was a forgone conclusion, and Omar gave the residence of Jerusalem an opportunity to avoid bloodshet, which eventually they accepted. When the Islamic forces marched on Jerusalem, they found the city gates opened, and welcomed the muslims as liberators from the Roman oppression.
Er, no they didn't. Sophronius, the Patriarch of Jerusalem and the many Christians living in Jerusalem did NOT welcome the Muslims as liberators. The negotiated a peace, yes. The Muslims eventually entered Jerusalem peacefully..yes. However that is not saying that there was no siege and neither is it saying that the inhabitants of Jerusalem "welcomed" them as liberators.
Originally posted by Lestat
Do you deny that life for the residents of Jerusalem improved dramatically compared to that under the Byzantium empire?
No I don’t deny it, but so what? Again what are you trying to justify?
Improved for who? The Christians or the Jews?
Originally posted by Lestat
If your looking for evidence in Christian/Jewish historical references then ofcourse your not going to find it. But why dont you look at the evidence on the ground.
You implied by your previous statement that the Muslims took Jerusalem bloodlessly and then “at the time” the population of Jerusalem converted to Islam. You stated and I quote that……” However you can't deny that the majority of the inhabitants of Jerusalem at the time did convert to Islam. History shows us that.
Obviously history doesn’t show us that at all.
And what evidence "on the ground" are we talking about?
Originally posted by Lestat
What, do you think the muslims mass immigrated to Jerusalem once Mullah Omar Ibn Khatab had control of jerusalem. Was there a huge influx of people, some sort of Islamic exodus to Jerusalem?
You tell me. You’re the one that claimed that and I’ll quote you again…. However you can't deny that the majority of the inhabitants of Jerusalem at the time did convert to Islam. History shows us that.
Originally posted by Lestat
In 1929 a census of Jerusalem found that East Jerusalem was majority muslim, and west was divided by Jewish and Christian/Latin quater. This was a British study. During the crusades (200-300 years after capture of Jerusalem), Majority of Jerusalem was muslim, with a minority Jewish/Christian population. So how do you explain that??
1929? You kidding me aren’t you? What’s a census in 1929 got to with what went on “at the time” in AD 638. During the Crusades which captured Jerusalem in 1099 (which is a full 461 years after the fall of Jerusalem) there was a majority Muslim population, but also a sizeable quantity of Jews.
I’m not surprised that after 461 years of Muslim rule that the majority of inhabitants in Jerusalem in 1099 were Muslim. However that is a LONG way from implying that the inhabitants of jerusalem saw the light in 638 and converted enmass to Islam…….as you implied by your statement.
Originally posted by Lestat
Incorrect. The terms of peace imposed on the Christians were identical to those on the Jews. They are both considered 'Children of the Book', and since Mullah Omar Ibn Khattab strictly adhered to the teachings of the Prophet, both were treated equally. The difference is that the Christians adhered to the terms, however the Jews revolted in May 637AD (they couldn't accept rule from the arabs, there cousins who they considered inferior), and were punished accordingly.
What’s incorrect about it? I stated……”the terms of peace imposed on the Christians living in Jerusalem by Caliph Omar were moderate and there was no 'forced' conversions of Christians. That’s correct isn’t it? “ Didn’t a chronicler of the time state….”This peace….guarantees them security for their lives, property, churches, and the crucifixes belonging to those who display and honour them…..There shall be no compulsion in matters of faith.”
“Certainly if you are referring to the Jews, that is not correct.” This statement was made in reply to your claim,,,,” However you can't deny that the majority of the inhabitants of Jerusalem at the time did convert to Islam. History shows us that.” I stated that wasn’t correct. You’ve backed me up by saying the Jews revolted later that year and were punished accordingly. Sounds like they didn't convert to Islam "at the time."
So in fact my statement was correct.
Originally posted by Lestat
My point is that western history has an agenda, and you can't take it all to be fact. And the same goes with Arab/eastern history. So the truth you'll find is somewhere in the middle.
Exactly. So one tries to read both and come to a considered opinion. Note that I have quoted Eastern historians to you. You’ve quoted and referred to very few Western historians (or very few historians at all actually)
As you say!
Originally posted by Lestat
I assure you that there more experience and learned historians then you out there that will say the exact same thing about your material. I don't mean this as an attack by the way, just a fact of life.
Maybe, but there are some “facts”, which are generally agreed on by most historians and which refute some of ah_19’s claims.
Example:
”palestinians been there longer”.
No they haven’t.
Originally posted by Lestat
No one denied the existence of Jerusalem. But you claim that this is proof of the existence of Israel (which I don't deny by the way). All the above paragraph confirms is the existence of Jerusalem.
Correct. But my comment here needs to be read in conjunction with my other comments.
Originally posted by Lestat
I repeat that during the reign of Ramses II there was no Israel,
This school of thought is being increasingly challenged.
Originally posted by Lestat
and no evidence during on the buildings of Ramses II, or writing of Israel.
Not Rameses II, but certainly of his son Merenptah. The Ashkelon Wall is throught now to have been by Merenptah, but glorifying the exploits of his father Rameses. Israel is definitely mentioned.
Originally posted by Lestat
Jerusalem yes, Israel no. Jerusalem existed long before Israel did.
Correct.
Originally posted by Lestat
According the Biblical texts (and the Quran) Jerusalem was first settled by Abraham, and the present day site of the dome of the rock/wailing wall is the site where Abraham was going to slay his son (Isaac or Ismael), but slayed the goat instead.
Well, if it says so in the Biblical texts, it MUST be true. In fact archaeologists believe Jerusalem was a settlement long before the reputed time of Abraham. Even according to the Biblical texts, how could Abraham have founded Jerusalem when in Genesis 14:18, it was already recognised as a city of religious dispute ruled by Melchizedek, its high priest. Archaeoligst beleive Jerusalem has been the site of a settlement since about 4,000 BC, long before the accepted period for Abraham.
Originally posted by Lestat
So there is no reference to Israel on the Northern pylon whatsoever. You've just included that for the sake of your argument.
As I said my comment here needs to be read in conjunction with my other comments... and not in isolation. I've explained why I mentioned Jerusalem on the northern pylon.
Originally posted by Lestat
So incorret its not funny. Which egyptogyst are you talking about.
David M. Rohl and Professor Robert Steven Bianchi.
Originally posted by Lestat
Have a look at your dates. Ramses II was pharoah long before the house of David, and way before the first sacking of the Temple of Jerusalem.
Which dates are these? Are these based on Edwin Thiele’s chronology? As I have stated before Egyptian dates and their relation to Biblical events are constantly being re-assessed.
Originally posted by Lestat
Shoshenk I was not in fact Egyptian. He was a Pharoah of a Nubian Dynasty which conquered Egypt.
Shoshenk was Libyan actually, not Nubian.
Originally posted by Lestat
I can't remember exact dates but Shoshenk I came long after Ramses II, when egypt was well into his demise. Also after the house of Solomon and David. However Ramses II as i said earlier, was around long before David.
Shoshenk reigned from 945-924. He wasn’t after the House of Solomon and David. After all you are arguing he went to war against Rehoboam, who was the son of Solomon.
Originally posted by Lestat
He in fact did record the sacking of Jerusalem, and the tale is told in Karnak.
The city of Jerusalem is NOT, I repeat NOT, listed on the list of subjugated cities on the Shoshenk’s campaign city list. I can give you a complete list of the cities that are if you like. Most have been identified and only ONE of the 39 towns identified has been located in the kingdom of Judah. That city was Aijalon. The rest are in Israel, who according to the Bible (King Jeroboam) was an ally of the Egyptian king.
Rehoboam is known to have had 14 fortified cities. Only ONE is mentioned by Shoshenk, that being Aijalon. Now if “Shishak” went up against the Kingdom of Judah, as reported in the Bible, why isn’t Jerusalem mentioned on Shoshenk’s reliefs. Surely after the reign of Solomon and David it would have been a very significant city. Rohl and Bianchi contend that Shoshenq and Shishak are in fact not the same person and that in fact Shoshenk never went to Jerusalem. They identify “Shishak” with Rameses II for reasons I have already explained.
Israel IS mentioned on the Israel Stele of Merenptah, as well as on the Ashkelon Wall of Merenptah, the son of Rameses II as well as Jerusalem at Karnak as previously explained.
Originally posted by Lestat
You accuse ah_19 of slanting the facts to his own needs, yet you do exactly the same!
Well the Egyptians called Canaan, “Pa-Canaan. ” The use of the word Israel certainly implies that the Israelites were in possession of at least parts of the land of Canaan at the time of Rameses the Great. It is a possibility that the Kingdom of Israel (as a state) did exist at the time of Rameses II.
Certainly to return to my original point, there’s no doubt that Israel did exist and not just as the name of a prophet of god.
Originally posted by Lestat
It doesn't mention an Israeli state whatsoever. It mentions a land, not a state. Not once is the word state mentioned, correct? That makes a big difference. As mentioned earlier Israel was a prophet (Jacob) and lived in Canaan(present day Israel). Check the dates, there was no evidence of a State of Israel, no kingdom. Land of Israel yes (land where Israel (Jacob) lived).
Where’s your evidence that there was no State of Israel in ancient times? Are you suggesting that the United Monarchy of Israel under David and Solomon did not exist and never existed? Are you suggesting that the Israelite kings did not exist, that Kings such as Ahab, Josiah and Zedekiah did not exist or were ever kings over a Kingdom of Israel. The existence of the Kingdom of Israel is attested to in many places outside the Bible (in other places than Egypt) and I’d be very happy to give you a complete list of this.
However I’d like at least just one piece of evidence from you, that “there is no evidence of a State of Israel, no kingdom.”
Originally posted by Lestat
Not necessarily. As i mentioned the Egyptian kingdom was in a state of decline at the time. There's a scroll found in the temple of Shoshenk which mentions that there were '100 pharoahs in 100 days', untill Shoshenk (of nubian descent) captured Thebes and started his own dynasty. They had there own problems, and Shoshenk was merely a 'bolder in the stream'. Arts and crafts were only a mere shadow of what they once were.
Shoshenk was of Libyan descent, not Nubian. I don’t follow your point that Jerusalem wouldn’t have been mentioned because the Egyptian kingdom was in a state of decline. Geez, he mentioned 39 other cities. Why not Jerusalem? Why only 1 of the 14 known fortified cities of Rehoboam.
Originally posted by Lestat
I've read it in a number of sources.
Could you quote the sources than Kenneth Kitchen was a Jew? It’s news to me.
Originally posted by Lestat
A part of the zionist plot to conquer palestine (from the 18th century this has been going on, since Theodore Hertzl (a liberal jew at best) gave birth to the idea) was to re-write history, to give themselves a more relevant claim. It seems to have worked.
Of course, how convenient to label any historian who may not give the Arab version of events to be labelled a part of Zionist plot. I suppose I’m part of a Zionist plot as well, because I disagree with you.
Originally posted by Lestat
Yes, and British historians, Australians historians, etc, etc.
My point exactly, so don't take your history to be fact! History, can and has been re-written. Try reading between the lies!
And what are the lies? How do you decide what is a “lie” and what is not. Truth, I suppose is your version of events.
Originally posted by Lestat
Don't you mean Joseph.
No. I mean Moses. Joseph in fact has been identified by some Egyptologists as possibly being Yuya, a prominent official at the time of Amenhotep III, the father of Akhenaten.
Originally posted by Lestat
Moses existing during the times of Akhenaten wouldnt not make sense. As you'd probably know, Akhenaten was famous for scrapping the numerous gods of Egypt (in particular Amun and Ra) and imposing the one god (Aton, the disk of the sun). He was the only pharoah to believe in one god. If Moses existed during his time then wouldn't Akhenaten been alot more friendly towards Moses, since his teachings would have been very close to what Akhenaton believed.
Perhaps Akhenaten WAS Moses.
Originally posted by Lestat
If you meant that Akhenaten was pharoah when Moses was born, then once again this wouldn't make sense, since it would mean that Tutankamum was pharoah when Moses returned to Egypt from exile, which is ludicrous.
Why ludicrous? Why not Horemheb or Ay?
Originally posted by Lestat
Horemheb was pharoah 20 or so years after the death of Akhenaton, after Tutankamun (also was TutankAton), and Ay, though many believe he was the true power behind these two.
Horemheb succeeded Ay (who apparently reigned for four years and was the son of Yuya). Ay succeeded Tutankamen who reigned for 9 years. So there was a 13 year period between the death (disappearance, his mummy has never been found) of Akhenaten and the accession of Horemheb.
Originally posted by Lestat
I've heard that theories that Akhenaton was Pharoah during the existence of Joseph. To me that would make much more sense, perhaps Joseph inspired Akhenaton to the belief of the one god, and during this time Joseph's brothers and his fathers immigrated to Egypt. Hence Canaan from that time on would have been known as the land of 'Israel', the land from which Israel (Jacob) came from, and the brothers multiplied, generation after generation to the time of Ramses II, Merenptah and the Exodus. But thats just my thoery, taken from sources that I've read.
I suggest then you read Ahmed Osman’s “Stranger in the Valley of the Kings”, and “Moses: Pharoah of Egypt”.
Originally posted by Lestat
and vice versa.
And who have you mentioned again?
Originally posted by Lestat
Many still believe that they were. I haven't read those works yet...but I will. Thanks for the references. I still believe that if you look, the dates don't match. I haven't got the dates here cause i'm at work, but will have a look tonight.
I understand perfectly the traditional way of calculating dates in Egyptian chronology. All I’m saying is that it coming under increasing questioning and re-assessment.