What happens if two teams finish with the same %.

Remove this Banner Ad

newcs

Club Legend
May 16, 2005
2,190
2,748
Geelong
AFL Club
Geelong
Other Teams
geelong
This year Essendon finished 2217 points for & 2217 points against.
This gives a total of an even 100%.

What happens if two teams manage to do this in the same year and they also win the same amount of games. Which team finishes higher ? Imagine if it was the difference between 8th & 9th.
I reckon this situation is more possible than what some people think.
Is there any rule to cover this situation ?
 

Log in to remove this ad.

If this were the two teams:

Essedon 11 wins 11 losses 2012 points for and against 100 percent
Richmond same as above

Then Essedon would be above. Then it comes down to Alphabetical order. I know, this gives Adeliade a Massive advantage ( well, not really because this might happen once in 10 million years) but I know this because before round 1 the ladder goes Adeliade Brisbane Carlton Collingwood ect.
Also another interesting fact is that if it was:
West Coast 11 wins 11 losses 100%
Adeliade 0 Wins 22 Draws 0 Losses 9999% and
Collingwood 0 Wins 22 Losses -1000% and they were the only 3 teams in the comp the ladder would look like this:
1 West Coast 11 11 0 100%
2 Collingwood 0 22 0 -1000%
3 Adeliade 0 0 22 9999%
Hmm, Interesting.
 
If for example both teams were on 100%, then It goes buy alphebetical order. So if it was Essendon and Richmond, Essendon would get threw because E is before R. Or is this not the way it's done!?

If after all the natural tie breaks were dead even this my be written in a rule book but it would not happen. It would be decided by a coin toss or lot draw.
 
Also another interesting fact is that if it was:
West Coast 11 wins 11 losses 100%
Adeliade 0 Wins 22 Draws 0 Losses 9999% and
Collingwood 0 Wins 22 Losses -1000% and they were the only 3 teams in the comp the ladder would look like this:
1 West Coast 11 11 0 100%
2 Collingwood 0 22 0 -1000%
3 Adeliade 0 0 22 9999%
Hmm, Interesting.

:confused:

That makes absolutely no sense at all.
 
Yes it does, there's just a side that finished 4th with about 33 wins, 22 draws and 11 losses as well.
Durr.

That would be just Freo's luck - to finish the season with 33 wins and still come last.

But even besides that, how could a team with 22 draws end up with a % of 9999.

And how could a team with 22 draws finish below a team with 22 losses.
 

(Log in to remove this ad.)

This year Essendon finished 2217 points for & 2217 points against.
This gives a total of an even 100%.

What happens if two teams manage to do this in the same year and they also win the same amount of games. Which team finishes higher ? Imagine if it was the difference between 8th & 9th.
I reckon this situation is more possible than what some people think.
Is there any rule to cover this situation ?

I bet we will never ever see this in our life time. The odds are that remote of it happening at any position on the ladder let alone 8th and 9th.
 
I bet we will never ever see this in our life time. The odds are that remote of it happening at any position on the ladder let alone 8th and 9th.

I could be wrong, but probably the closest that has happened was in 1997. Both Port and Brisbane finished on 42 points - Port won the first encounter by 2 points, a draw was the result of the second.

A percentage difference of 13.2 was definitely the killer, but still reasonable close after 176 games of football
 
Here are the really close percentages on the final ladder for teams contesting the finals with equal match points

2009
3 Western Bulldogs 122.58 60 pts
4 Collingwood 122.27 60 pts

0.31% changed who played St Kilda and Geelong in the qualifying finals.

1944
1 Richmond 131.15 54 pts
2 Fitzroy 131.09 54 pts

0.06% gave Richmond the nominal honour of finishing on top of the ladder but no advantage over Fitzroy as both had the 'double-chance' and would meet each other in the 2nd semi-final regardless of who finished first or second.

1) Premiership Points
2) Percentage
3) Points For
4) Head to Head Results
5) Flip of a Coin
The above as provided by Hornberger are the League rules for the Final Ladder. Alphabetical only comes into play on the progressive ladder which has no official function.

In 1940 after four matches:

Code:
         W  L D  For   Agst.  %    Pts.
Essendon 2  2 0  353   381  92.56   8
Geelong  2  2 0  353   381  92.56   8
This is the latest in a season that two teams have been equal on matches points and percentage.

RogersResults
 
Here are the really close percentages on the final ladder for teams contesting the finals with equal match points

2009
3 Western Bulldogs 122.58 60 pts
4 Collingwood 122.27 60 pts

0.31% changed who played St Kilda and Geelong in the qualifying finals.

1944
1 Richmond 131.15 54 pts
2 Fitzroy 131.09 54 pts

0.06% gave Richmond the nominal honour of finishing on top of the ladder but no advantage over Fitzroy as both had the 'double-chance' and would meet each other in the 2nd semi-final regardless of who finished first or second.

The above as provided by Hornberger are the League rules for the Final Ladder. Alphabetical only comes into play on the progressive ladder which has no official function.

In 1940 after four matches:

Code:
         W  L D  For   Agst.  %    Pts.
Essendon 2  2 0  353   381  92.56   8
Geelong  2  2 0  353   381  92.56   8
This is the latest in a season that two teams have been equal on matches points and percentage.

RogersResults

Whats more likely? A coin landing on its side or the 2012 afl grand final being between Gold Coast and GWS?
 
If this were the two teams:

Essedon 11 wins 11 losses 2012 points for and against 100 percent
Richmond same as above

Then Essedon would be above. Then it comes down to Alphabetical order. I know, this gives Adeliade a Massive advantage ( well, not really because this might happen once in 10 million years) but I know this because before round 1 the ladder goes Adeliade Brisbane Carlton Collingwood ect.
Also another interesting fact is that if it was:
West Coast 11 wins 11 losses 100%
Adeliade 0 Wins 22 Draws 0 Losses 9999% and
Collingwood 0 Wins 22 Losses -1000% and they were the only 3 teams in the comp the ladder would look like this:
1 West Coast 11 11 0 100%
2 Collingwood 0 22 0 -1000%
3 Adeliade 0 0 22 9999%
Hmm, Interesting.

Would be more interesting if it were true.

Draws are worth 2 points, so Adelaide would finish equal with West Coast on points.

Then Adelaides percentage would have to be a straight 100%, so they could possibly finish 1st depending the for/against record of West Coast.

As has been pointed out, -1000%?
 
I bet we will never ever see this in our life time. The odds are that remote of it happening at any position on the ladder let alone 8th and 9th.

I'll half agree with what you say.


I believe that the chances of two teams on equal for & against tallys at seasons end would be incredibly remote. -

...............W L .. For Agst. % ..... Pts.
Essendon 11 11 1853 1781 104.04 44
Geelong.. 11 11 1853 1781 104.04 44




The chances of two teams finishing on 100% are not as remote as it seems.

...............W L.. For Agst. % ..... Pts.
Essendon 11 11 1931 1931 100.00 44
Geelong.. 11 11 1887 1887 100.00 44
 
I'll half agree with what you say.


I believe that the chances of two teams on equal for & against tallys at seasons end would be incredibly remote. -

...............W L .. For Agst. % ..... Pts.
Essendon 11 11 1853 1781 104.04 44
Geelong.. 11 11 1853 1781 104.04 44




The chances of two teams finishing on 100% are not as remote as it seems.

...............W L.. For Agst. % ..... Pts.
Essendon 11 11 1931 1931 100.00 44
Geelong.. 11 11 1887 1887 100.00 44

So far 3 out of 1,370 teams have had a percentage of 100.00% on the final ladder. (0.22%)

Essendon 2011 (they were also on 100.00% after 18 matches)
Sydney/SM 1930 (1553 for and against)
Collingwood 1916 (803 for and against)

Excluding first round draws there have been 51 occasions where teams have been of 100.00% during the season.

Hawthorn did it twice in 2009 after 6 and 9 matches.

Nth Melbourne did it twice in 1949 after 4 and 8 matches.

Carlton did it twice and Collingwood and Essendon each once in 1920.

Let the bookmakers work out the odds. ;)
 
If this were the two teams:

Essedon 11 wins 11 losses 2012 points for and against 100 percent
Richmond same as above

Then Essedon would be above. Then it comes down to Alphabetical order. I know, this gives Adeliade a Massive advantage ( well, not really because this might happen once in 10 million years) but I know this because before round 1 the ladder goes Adeliade Brisbane Carlton Collingwood ect.
Also another interesting fact is that if it was:
West Coast 11 wins 11 losses 100%
Adeliade 0 Wins 22 Draws 0 Losses 9999% and
Collingwood 0 Wins 22 Losses -1000% and they were the only 3 teams in the comp the ladder would look like this:
1 West Coast 11 11 0 100%
2 Collingwood 0 22 0 -1000%
3 Adeliade 0 0 22 9999%
Hmm, Interesting.

West Coast had 11 losses? But to whom? No other team in your comp won a game?
 
So just out of curiosity, I thought I'd find the answer to this. Here's what the AFL Regulations states:

Where two or more Clubs at the completion of the Home and Away Matches have accumulated the same Premiership Points and have the same percentage, the following procedure shall apply:
(A) the position of the tied Clubs shall be adjusted by accumulating the Premiership Points awarded to the relevant Clubs as a result of the Home and Away Matches played between them and placing the Club with the highest accumulated Premiership Points, first as between them;

(B) where the Premiership Points accumulated by the relevant Clubs remain equal, the position of the tied Clubs shall be adjusted by calculating each such Club’s percentage based on the proportion of points scored for and against each such Club from the Home and Away Matches between them and placing the Club with the highest percentage, first as between them;

(C) where two or more Clubs still remain tied, the position of the Clubs shall be adjusted by lot conducted and drawn by the General Manager - Football Operations so that any Club drawn ahead of any other Club shall be placed ahead of such other Club or Clubs.


So if I'm interpreting this correctly, it seems that games between the clubs are used first, then if still tied, the %'s from these games, then in the extremely unlikely scenario of still being tied, they essentially draw it out of a hat.
 

Remove this Banner Ad

Back
Top